NCLEX-RN
ATI NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
In the coronary care unit, a client has developed multifocal premature ventricular contractions. The nurse should anticipate the administration of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lidocaine is the drug of choice to treat ectopic ventricular beats.
Question 2 of 5
A murmur has been discovered during the routine physical examination of a 1-year-old child. The parent is extremely concerned about this diagnosis. Which of the following explanations by the nurse indicates understanding of this dysfunction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Because the left atrial pressure is greater than right atrial pressure, oxygenated blood flows from the left to the right atria. Because of the risk of pulmonary obstructive diseases and congestive heart failure later in life, surgery is usually performed between age 4 and 6 years, with essentially no operative mortality or postoperative complications. Many ventricular septal defects close spontaneously (20-60%) as a result of growth and proliferation of the muscular septum or formation of a membrane across the opening. This management is usually recommended with children with mild pulmonary stenosis.
Question 3 of 5
Succinylcholine chloride (Anectine) is ordered prior to electroconvulsive therapy treatment for depressed clients. The nurse explains that the purpose of the drug is to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Succinylcholine chloride relaxes muscles and decreases the intensity of the seizure during electroconvulsive therapy.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a 70-year-old client with hypovolemia who is receiving a blood transfusion. Assessment findings reveal crackles on chest auscultation and distended neck veins. What is the nurse's initial action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Crackles and distended neck veins suggest fluid overload from the transfusion. Slowing the transfusion prevents worsening overload. Stopping it (
C) is premature, documenting only (
B) delays intervention, and pupil assessment (
D) is irrelevant.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of incompetent cervix. Which intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Incompetent cervix where the cervix dilates prematurely is treated with cerclage (a stitch to reinforce the cervix).
Tocolytics may be adjunctive fetal distress monitoring is secondary and antibiotics are not routinely indicated.