NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 7 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Immediately after surgery the client with an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg refuses to look at the operative site. The most immediate diagnosis that can be made is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Refusing to look at the operative site suggests a disturbance in self-concept, as the client may be struggling with acceptance of the altered body image post-amputation.
Extract:
A female client is diagnosed with human papillomavirus (HPV).
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following client statements, if made to the nurse, illustrates an understanding of the possible sequelae of this illness?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: Determine the 'hidden meaning' of the answer choices. (1) antibiotics are not used for viral infections (2) douches will not prevent recurrence (3) correct-several strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV) are associated with cervical cancer (4) tampons would not be a problem as in toxic shock syndrome
Extract:
The nurse has just received report from the previous shift.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following patients should the nurse see FIRST?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Determine the least stable client. (1) leg needs to be abducted at all times, ice to operative site, turn patient as ordered (2) correct-life-threatening condition which can last longer than 24 hours, constantly monitor client (3) requires follow-up, assess breath sounds (4) monitor vital signs, I and O, teach to modify lifestyle (stop smoking, reduce stress, modify intake of calories, fat, and salt)
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of glaucoma who is receiving timolol (Timoptic) eye drops. Which of the following client statements would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Timolol, a beta-blocker, can cause systemic effects like bradycardia, and a slower heart rate is concerning, requiring evaluation to prevent cardiovascular complications. Options A, C, and D are less urgent: burning is common, headaches are nonspecific, and watery eyes are not significant.
Extract:
A primigravida client, 10-days postpartum, who is anxious about caring for her newborn. A middle-aged client, 6-days postoperative, who is complaining of pain in his midsternal incision. A client with AIDS who had a chest tube removed yesterday and is complaining of crackling under his skin. A client who receives amiloride hydrochloride (Midamor) and states that she is dizzy when she gets up in the morning.
Question 5 of 5
The homecare nurse is scheduling clients for the day. Which of the following clients should the nurse visit FIRST?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: Identify the least stable client by eliminating the more stable clients. (1) psychosocial need, physical issues take priority (2) complaints require follow-up, but not the most unstable client (3) correct-describes subcutaneous emphysema, which is indication of pneumothorax; observe client for respiratory distress, contact physician (4) postural hypotension a side effect of diuretic therapy, change position slowly