NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Questions with NGN Questions
Extract:
The nurse is caring for a 34-year-old female client in the clinic.
Nurses' Notes
Initial Clinic Visit
The client is receiving a tuberculin skin test. The client works at a long-term care facility and has never been vaccinated for
tuberculosis. Medical history includes Crohn disease, major depression, and a blood transfusion following a motor vehicle collision 5
years ago. The client takes an immunosuppressant, oral contraceptive pills, and a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor daily.
The client is currently providing housing for a family member who periodically experiences homelessness. The client has a pet dog.
Clinic Visit 2 Days Later
The client returns to the clinic for inspection of the tuberculin skin test injection site. There is a palpable, raised, hardened area around
the injection site that is 16 mm in diameter.
The client reports no cough, fever, fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, or nocturnal diaphoresis. Lung sounds are clear throughout all lobes
on auscultation.
Vital signs are T 98.5 F (36.9 C), P 72, RR 17, BP 118/72, and SpO 98% on room air.
Clinic Visit 6 Months Later
The client reports fatigue; intermittent fevers; decreased appetite; a 6-Ib (2.7-kg) weight loss; and a productive, chronic cough that
began 5 weeks ago. The client has not started the antibiotic regimen for latent tuberculosis.
Diagnostic Results
Chest x-ray
Lungs appear normal. There are no infiltrates, cavitation, or effusions.
Question 1 of 5
I can never get tuberculosis again once I finish treatment
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rifampin is often used in the management of both latent and active tuberculosis (T
B) but reduces the effectiveness of oral contraceptive
pills.
Therefore, the client should be instructed to use additional methods of contraception during treatment and for 1 month following
the completion of treatment (Option 4).
Extract:
The nurse is caring for a 20-year-old female client.
Nurses' Notes
Urgent Care Clinic
0845: The parent brought the client to the clinic due to vomiting and weakness. The parent states that the client has experienced
sore throat and nasal congestion for the past week. The client has had 4 episodes of emesis during the past 24 hours and
diffuse, constant abdominal pain. The parent also reports that the client has had increased thirst and urine output over the
past 2 months.
The client's last menstrual period ended approximately 6 weeks ago with no abnormalities. Pregnancy status is unknown. The
client does not take any medications and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or recreational substances. Family history includes
hypertension and diabetes mellitus.
The client appears drowsy and is oriented to person and time only. The abdomen is soft without rigidity or rebound
tenderness, and bowel sounds are normal. No blood is present in emesis. Respirations are rapid and deep. Breath sounds
are clear.
Vital signs are T 98.8 F (37.1 C), P 128, RR 30, and BP 88/60 mm Hg.
Finger-stick blood glucose level is 600 mg/dL (33.3 mmol/L).
Question 2 of 5
For each potential finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the disease process of diabetic ketoacidosis, ruptured appendix, or ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
| Finding | Diabetic ketoacidosis | Ruptured appendix | Ruptured ectopic pregnancy |
|---|---|---|---|
| Polyuria | |||
| Vomiting | |||
| Tachypnea | |||
| Tachycardia | |||
| Hyperglycemia | |||
| Abdominal pain |
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DK
A) is a complication of diabetes mellitus that results from lack of insulin. Insulin is required to transport glucose
into cells for energy, which means that lack of insulin leads to intracellular starvation despite the high level of glucose circulating in the blood
(hyperglycemia). Physiologic responses to hyperglycemia include osmotic diuresis (polyuria) for reduction of blood glucose levels and
breakdown of fat into acidic ketone bodies for energy. This leads to states of dehydration (as evidenced by tachycardia), electrolyte
imbalance, and metabolic acidosis. Ketoacidosis leads to tachypnea and deep respirations (Kussmaul respirations), as well as abdominal
pain and vomiting.
Appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix often resulting from obstruction by fecal matter. Appendiceal obstruction traps colonic fluid
and mucus, causing increased intraluminal pressure and inflammation. This impairs perfusion of the appendix, resulting in swelling and
ischemia. Clinical manifestations include fever, abdominal pain, rebound abdominal tenderness, tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting.
Abdominal pain usually begins near the umbilicus and migrates to the right lower quadrant (eg, McBurney point). Tachypnea, as well as a
compensatory response, can be present, especially if there is a ruptured appendix or evidence of sepsis causing lactic acidosis (metabolic
acidosis).
Extract:
The nurse is caring for a 68-year-old client in the emergency department.
Nurses' Notes,
Emergency Department
1020:
The client reports shortness of breath, a 2-lb weight gain over the past week, and lower extremity swelling. The client
reports slight chest discomfort during activity that is relieved with rest. Medical history is significant for hypertension.
myocardial infarction, heart failure, coronary artery disease, and chronic stable angina. Current medications include
metoprolol, furosemide, potassium chloride, lisinopril, and aspirin. The client takes all medications as prescribed except
one; he states, "I do not take that water pill because I got tired of having to go to the bathroom all the time."
S1 and S2 are present; a prominent S3 is heard. Respirations are labored with inspiratory crackles in the middle and at the
base of the lungs. The abdomen is soft and nontender with normoactive bowel sounds. There is 3+ pitting edema in the
bilateral lower extremities.
Vital Signs,
1020
T ,98.8 F (37.1 C)
P, 60
RR, 24
BP, 168/96
SpO2, 90% on room air
Laboratory Test and Reference Range, 1030
Sodium
136-145 mEq/L
(136-145 mmol/L),
133 mEq/L
(133 mmol/L)
Potassium
3.5-5.0 mEq/L
(3.5-5.0 mmol/L),
6.5 mEq/L
(6.5 mmol/L)
BUN
10-20 mg/dL
(3.6-7.1 mmol/L),
22 mg/dL
(7.85 mmol/L)
Creatinine
Male: 0.6-1.3 mg/dL
(53-114.9 umol/L),
1.5 mg/dL
(132.6 umol/L)
Female: 0.5-1.1 mg/dL
(44.2-97.2 umol/L)
Question 3 of 5
The nurse has reviewed the information from the Nurses' Notes, Vital Signs, and Laboratory Results.The nurse is reviewing the client's response to potassium-lowering therapies. Which finding is unexpected and requires follow-up by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Treatment for hyperkalemia includes administration of calcium gluconate, furosemide, albuterol nebulizer, and insulin with dextrose. These
therapies may cause rapid shifts in fluid volume, blood glucose, and serum electrolytes. Insulin shifts available glucose and potassium into
the cell, lowering serum potassium levels; however, too much insulin and not enough dextrose cause hypoglycemia (eg, blood glucose 50
mg/dL [2.7 mmol/L]). Clients with kidney disease have an increased risk of hypoglycemia because insulin may accumulate.
The nurse should understand that a low blood glucose level and symptoms suspicious for hypoglycemia (eg, diaphoresis) require follow-u
to prevent seizures, coma, and death due to lack of circulating glucose (Option 1). This client requires an additional dose of dextrose.
(Option 2) This client's blood pressure is 146/88 mm Hg and heart rate is within normal limits. This is an improvement from the initial blood
pressure and represents a therapeutic response to furosemide administration. Blood pressure should be lowered slowly to avoid hypotensior
Extract:
The nurse is caring for a 20-year-old female client.
Nurses' Notes
Urgent Care Clinic
0845: The parent brought the client to the clinic due to vomiting and weakness. The parent states that the client has experienced
sore throat and nasal congestion for the past week. The client has had 4 episodes of emesis during the past 24 hours and
diffuse, constant abdominal pain. The parent also reports that the client has had increased thirst and urine output over the
past 2 months.
The client's last menstrual period ended approximately 6 weeks ago with no abnormalities. Pregnancy status is unknown. The
client does not take any medications and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or recreational substances. Family history includes
hypertension and diabetes mellitus.
The client appears drowsy and is oriented to person and time only. The abdomen is soft without rigidity or rebound
tenderness, and bowel sounds are normal. No blood is present in emesis. Respirations are rapid and deep. Breath sounds
are clear.
Vital signs are T 98.8 F (37.1 C), P 128, RR 30, and BP 88/60 mm Hg.
Finger-stick blood glucose level is 600 mg/dL (33.3 mmol/L).
Laboratory Results
Laboratory Test and Reference Range, 0900
Glucose, serum (random)
≤200 mg/dL
(<11.1 mmol/L),
573 mg/dL
(31.8 mmol/L)
Potassium
3.5-5.0 mEq/L
(3.5-5.0 mmol/L),
5.7 mEq/L
(5.7 mmol/L)
Question 4 of 5
The nurse has reviewed the information from the Laboratory Results. The client is transferred to an inpatient care facility. Which of the following orders should the nurse expect for the client? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: A,B,C,G
Rationale: Management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DK
A) initially focuses on IV fluid resuscitation to reverse hypovolemia and then correction of
hyperglycemia, electrolyte abnormalities, and acid-base imbalance. Appropriate interventions include:
• Continuous insulin IV infusion to correct hyperglycemia. IV insulin has a more rapid onset of action than subcutaneous insulin, whic
allows faster and more precise management of the blood glucose level (Option 1).
• Continuous cardiac monitoring to detect dyshythmias related to metabolic acidosis or electrolyte abnormalities (Option 2).
• Hourly finger-stick blood glucose level checks to monitor for treatment effectiveness and detect any hypoglycemia related to the
insulin infusion (Option 3).
• Isotonic IV fluid (eg, 0.9% sodium chloride) to replace fluid losses and strict intake and output monitoring to evaluate the
effectiveness of fluid resuscitation and monitor for signs of acute kidney injury (Option 6).
• Frequent monitoring of arterial blood gas levels and electrolyte levels.
Extract:
The nurse is caring for a 64-year-old client.
History and Physical
Body System, Findings
General ,
The client reports a 24-hour history of blurred vision and redness in the left eye with a left-sided headache.
This evening, the client developed acute, severe pain in the left eye accompanied by occasional nausea and
vomiting. The client reports no use of systemic or topical eye medications. Medical history includes
osteoarthritis and hypercholesterolemia.
Eye, Ear, Nose, and Throat (EENT),
The client wears eyeglasses to correct farsighted vision. Right eye: pupil 2 mm and reactive to light,
conjunctiva clear. Left eye: pupil 4 mm and nonreactive to light with red conjunctiva. Bilateral lens opacity is noted.
Pulmonary,
Vital signs are RR 20 and SpO, 96% on room air. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally.
Cardiovascular,
Vital signs are T 99 F (37.2 C), P 88, and BP 140/82.
Psychosocial,
The client reports a great deal of emotional stress following the recent death of the client's spouse that is accompanied by lack of sleep, poor appetite, and a 7.9-lb (3.6-kg) weight loss within the past month. The client takes diphenhydramine for sleep.
Question 5 of 5
Complete the following sentences by choosing from the lists of options. The client is diagnosed with acute primary angle-closure glaucoma. The nurse anticipates a prescription of ------------ ophthalmic drops to ------------------
Correct Answer: C,E
Rationale: Treatment of acute angle-closure glaucoma (ACG) primarily involves reducing intraocular pressure (IOP) by decreasing aqueous humor
production and increasing aqueous humor outflow. Beta-adrenergic antagonists ("beta blockers") (eg, timolol, betaxolol), alpha-adrenergic
agonists (eg, apracionidine, brimonidine), and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (eg, acetazolamide) reduce aqueous humor production, while
cholinergic medications (eg, pilocarpine) cause pupillary constriction by acting on smooth muscle of the iris and increasing outflow of aqueous
humor. Prostaglandin agonists (eg, latanoprost, bimatoprost) also increase outflow of aqueous humor.
Ophthalmic beta-adrenergic antagonist medications typically cause minimal visual disturbances and are used as first-line treatment.
Nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonists (eg, timolol) exert their action on both beta-1 (eg, heart) and beta-2 (eg, lungs) adrenoreceptors. B
blocking the action of beta-2 adrenergic receptors, these medications can cause bronchospasms in those with lung disease (eg, chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma).