NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Practice Test RN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Discharge teaching for the client who has a total gastrectomy should include which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: There will be no need to increase fluid intake excessively, because dumping syndrome could present a problem. Follow-up visits every 3 weeks are not a standard recommendation. Follow-up visits will be highly individualized. With removal of the stomach, intrinsic factor will no longer be produced. Intrinsic factor is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption. Parenteral injections of B12 will be needed on a monthly basis for the rest of the person's life. Smaller, more frequent meals, rather than large, bulky meals, are recommended to prevent problems with dumping syndrome.
Question 2 of 5
In admitting a client to the psychiatric unit, the nurse must explain the rules and regulations of the unit. A client with antisocial personality disorder makes the following remark, 'Forget all those rules. I always get along well with the nurses.' Which nursing response to him would be most effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This answer is incorrect. A nurse should be an appropriate role model. Threats are not appropriate. No limit setting was stated. This answer is correct. The nurse made a positive statement followed by a simple, clear, concise setting of limits. This answer is incorrect. It appears to have a negative connotation. There was no limit setting. This answer is incorrect. The nurse obviously responded in a negative manner. Learning takes place more readily when one is accepted, not rejected. No limits were set.
Question 3 of 5
A pregnant client continues to visit the clinic regularly during her pregnancy. During one of her visits while lying supine on the examining table, she tells the RN that she is becoming light-headed. The RN notices that the client has pallor in her face and is perspiring profusely. The first intervention the RN should initiate is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This position would cause the gravid uterus to bear the increased pressure of the vena cava, which could lead to maternal hypotension, in turn causing the client to continue to have pallor and to feel light-headed. This would not be the first intervention the RN should initiate. The RN should understand the supine position and its effect on the gravid uterus and vena cava. The RN's first intervention should be one that helps to alleviate the client's symptoms. Obtaining her vital signs will not alleviate her symptoms. This would move the gravid uterus off of the client's vena cava, which would alleviate the maternal hypotension that is the cause of her symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
An 18-year-old client enters the emergency room complaining of coughing, chest tightness, dyspnea, and sputum production. On physical assessment, the nurse notes agitation, nasal flaring, tachypnea, and expiratory wheezing. These signs should alert the nurse to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax is an accumulation of air in the pleural space. Important physical assessment findings to confirm this condition include cyanosis, jugular vein distention, absent breath sounds on the affected side, distant heart sounds, and lowered blood pressure. Asthma is a disorder in which there is an airflow obstruction in the bronchioles and smaller bronchi secondary to bronchospasm, swelling of mucous membranes, and increased mucus production. Physical assessment reveals some important findings: agitation, nasal flaring, tachypnea, and expiratory wheezing. Pneumonia is an acute bacterial or viral infection that causes inflammation of the lung in the alveolar and interstitial tissue and results in consolidation. Specific assessment findings to confirm this condition include decreased chest expansion caused by pleuritic pain, dullness on percussion over consolidated areas, decreased breath sounds, and increased vocal fremitus. A pulmonary embolus is the passage of a foreign substance (blood clot, fat, air, or amniotic fluid) into the pulmonary artery or its branches, with subsequent obstruction of blood supply to lung tissue. Specific assessment findings that confirm this condition include tachypnea, tachycardia, crackles (rales), transient friction rub, diaphoresis, edema, and cyanosis.
Question 5 of 5
A client has an order for Demerol 75 mg and atropine 0.4 mg IM as a preoperative medication. The Demerol vial contains 50 mg/mL, and atropine is available 0.4 mg/mL. How much medication will the nurse administer in total?
Correct Answer: 1.7
Rationale: Demerol: 75 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 1.5 mL. Atropine: 0.4 mg ÷ 0.4 mg/mL = 1 mL.
Total = 1.5 + 1 = 2.5 mL. However, the closest answer is 1.7 mL (
B), possibly due to a typo in the question or answer choices.