NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Test Free Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Before administering a client's morning dose of Lanoxin (digoxin), the nurse checks the apical pulse rate and finds a rate of 54. The appropriate nursing intervention is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A pulse rate below 60 bpm is a contraindication for digoxin administration due to the risk of worsening bradycardia, so the nurse should withhold the dose and notify the physician.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is obtaining a history on an 80-year-old client. Which statement made by the client might indicate a potential for fluid and electrolyte imbalance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Frequent laxative use can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to excessive fluid and electrolyte loss through diarrhea.
Question 3 of 5
A 52-year-old client is undergoing menopause. Which of the following physical sign or symptom is often attributed to decreased estrogen production associated with menopause?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Decreased estrogen in menopause often leads to increased fat deposits on hips and abdomen (
C). Weight loss (
A), excessive sleeping (
B), and increased metabolic rate (
D) are not typical.
Question 4 of 5
A client hospitalized with renal calculi complains of severe pain in the right flank. In addition to complaints of pain, the nurse can expect to see changes in the client's vital signs that include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe pain from renal calculi can cause increased blood pressure due to sympathetic nervous system activation and stress response.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury who has an intracranial pressure monitor in place. Assessment reveals an ICP reading of 66. What is the nurse's best action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An ICP of 66 mmHg is critically high (normal <20 mmHg), indicating severe brain swelling. Notifying the physician is urgent for immediate intervention.