NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 5 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Because a client is taking rifampin (Rimactane), what must the nurse include when discussing medications with the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rifampin commonly causes red-orange discoloration of urine and sweat, a harmless side effect clients should be informed about to avoid alarm.
Question 2 of 5
A client with MRSA is receiving Vanomycin (Vancocin) IV. If the client experiences 'red man' syndrome, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Red man syndrome is caused by rapid vancomycin infusion, leading to histamine release. Slowing the infusion and monitoring blood pressure manage symptoms. It's not normal, and discontinuing is unnecessary.
Extract:
At an inpatient psychiatric unit, a 40-year-old woman insists on staying in her room and repeatedly comments to the nurse: 'Special agents are here. Maybe you are one.'
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following responses, if made by the nurse, is BEST?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Remember therapeutic communication. (1) nontherapeutic, fails to respond to feeling tone, trust builds through interactions (2) correct-patient experiencing delusion (persistent false belief), responds to feeling tone, acknowledges that patient believes it to be true, represents reality (3) statement of reassurance, but denies acceptance of patient's feelings (4) should not encourage patient to explain delusions, would serve to reinforce them
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
An adult who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at home via nasal cannula. In addition to instructing the client and his family about not smoking when oxygen is in use, what should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Shuffling across carpet generates static electricity, risking sparks near oxygen, which is a fire hazard. Adjusting oxygen flow without medical orders or cleaning with alcohol (instead of soap and water) is unsafe.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is monitoring a client’s EKG strip and notes coupled premature ventricular contractions greater than 10 per minute.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lidocaine is the drug of choice for frequent or coupled PVCs, as it suppresses ventricular arrhythmias that could lead to ventricular tachycardia. Atropine treats bradycardia, isoproterenol is used for heart block, and verapamil is a calcium-channel blocker for supraventricular arrhythmias.