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Questions 158

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Question 1 of 5

Assessment of parturient reveals the following: cervical dilation 6 cm and station 22; no progress in the last 4 hours. Uterine contractions decreasing in frequency and intensity. Marked molding of the presenting fetal head is described. The physician orders, 'Begin oxytocin induction at 1 mU/min.' The nurse should:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Oxytocin stimulates labor but should not be used until CPD (cephalopelvic disproportion) is ruled out in a dysfunctional labor. This answer is the correct protocol for oxytocin administration, but the medication should not be used until CPD is ruled out. This answer is the correct manner to interpret effective stimulation, but oxytocin should not be used until CPD is ruled out. This answer is the appropriate nursing action because the scenario presents a dysfunctional labor pattern that may be caused by CPD. Oxytocin administration is contraindicated in CPD.

Question 2 of 5

Chorioamnionitis is a maternal infection that is usually associated with:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Chorioamnionitis is an inflammation of the chorion and amnion that is generally associated with premature or prolonged rupture of membranes.

Question 3 of 5

A primigravida with diabetes is admitted to the labor and delivery unit at 34 weeks gestation. Which physician's order should the nurse question?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Terbutaline (Brethine) a tocolytic is used to stop preterm labor but is contraindicated in diabetic patients due to its risk of causing hyperglycemia. The other medications are appropriate for preeclampsia (magnesium sulfate) pain (butorphanol) or infection prophylaxis (cefazolin).

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is preparing to check a client for Trousseau's sign. Which equipment should the nurse obtain?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Trousseau’s sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff on the arm to induce carpopedal spasm indicating hypocalcemia. The other equipment is not used for this assessment.

Question 5 of 5

A client with angina is experiencing migraine headaches. The physician has prescribed Sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex). Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Sumatriptan, a triptan, is contraindicated in angina due to vasoconstrictive effects, risking coronary ischemia. Questioning the order (
A) is priority. Samples (
B), teaching (
C), and financial aid (
D) are inappropriate without resolving the contraindication.

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