NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 10 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
An older man is seen in the outpatient clinic for treatment of an acute attack of gout.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Partial weight bearing reduces pressure and stress on the affected joint, alleviating gout-related pain during ambulation. Passive exercises may worsen pain, immobilization increases stiffness, and restricting walking does not address pain management during necessary movement.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following nursing actions should be the priority for an infant admitted with a positive stool culture for Salmonella?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: prevents transmission of this bacterium to other individuals
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following strategies would be MOST therapeutic as the nurse tries to analyze a bulimic client's eating habits and the circumstances that precipitate the client's eating problems?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: implementation, nurse is trying to analyze and understand what triggers the client's binging and purging activities, so therapeutic nursing intervention of assigning a thought/feelings/actions (T/F/
A) journal relating to client's eating behaviors will be most helpful to the nurse and therapeutic to the client; after this information is gained and reviewed, collaboration by the nurse and client on other strategies such as delay and distraction techniques, stress reduction, and developing a 'lifeline' in relation to eating behaviors will further benefit the client
Extract:
A 50-year old man who attends an outpatient clinic is taking chlorpromazine hydrochloride (Thorazine) 100 mg tid. He reports to the nurse that he is sleeping through the day.
Question 4 of 5
What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: All answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) 300-400 mg/day is needed to treat psychosis (2) correct-will reduce daytime sedation (3) won't decrease sedation from medication (4) won't decrease sedation from medication
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is monitoring a 20-year-old woman in active labor who is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) 1 mU/min IV. The nurse should stop the infusion if
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: contractions should be less frequent (longer than 2-minute intervals) and should be of shorter duration (less than 90 seconds) allows for longer resting time between contractions