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Questions 227

NCLEX-PN

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Extract:


Question 1 of 5

An adult is scheduled for a cardioversion next week. What should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client about the procedure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cardioversion requires sedation, so the client must be NPO for 8 hours to prevent aspiration. The client is sedated, not awake, it's not typically repeated monthly, and it's used for atrial arrhythmias, not ventricular fibrillation.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is preparing to discharge a client who is receiving Nardil (phenelzine). The nurse should tell the client to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Drug interactions between an MAOI and pseudoephedrine can result in hypertensive crisis. Answer A refers to the client receiving antipsychotic medications such as Thorazine, so it is incorrect. Answers C and D do not apply to MAOIs, so they are incorrect.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes mellitus who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following is the most important preoperative assessment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Blood glucose control is critical preoperatively in diabetes to prevent complications like wound infections or ketoacidosis. Electrolytes, CBC, and urinalysis are important but secondary, as glucose directly impacts surgical outcomes.

Extract:

A client who had previously signed the consent for liver biopsy has changed his mind and no longer wants the procedure.


Question 4 of 5

The best initial response by the nurse would be:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Exploring the reason for refusal respects the patient's autonomy and facilitates informed decision-making.

Extract:


Question 5 of 5

The nurse is admitting a 3-year-old child who is thought to have meningococcal meningitis. What type of room assignment is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious, requiring droplet isolation in an isolation room to prevent spread, unlike private or semi-private rooms.

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