NCLEX Questions, NCLEX Trainer Test 2 Questions, NCLEX-PN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 157

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Test Bank

NCLEX Trainer Test 2 Questions

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Question 1 of 5

An adult had exploratory surgery and postoperatively had an exacerbation of asthma. The client is on a rebreathing mask and seems upset and angry. What is the best nursing approach?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Spending time with the client addresses emotional distress, calming them without medication or restraints, supporting asthma management.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intravenous fluid therapy. Which observation needs to be reported to the charge nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A cool, blanched infusion site suggests infiltration or extravasation, requiring immediate reporting to prevent tissue damage. Cool fluid sensation, tape, or ambulation are normal.

Question 3 of 5

The physician has prescribed hydralazine (Apresoline) for a client with acute glomerulonephritis. Which finding indicates that the drug is having the desired effect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Apresoline (hydralazine) is an antihypertensive; therefore, a decrease in blood pressure indicates the medication is working. Answers A, B, and D indicate that the overall condition of the client is improving, but they are not the result of the medication.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is to administer meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) 100 mg, atropine sulfate (Atropesol) 0.4 mg, and promethazine hydrochloride (Phenergan) 50 mg IM to a pre-operative client. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Have the client empty bladder. The first step in the process is to have the client void prior to administering the pre-operative medication. The other actions follow this initial step in this sequence: D, C, B, A. Note: It is much easier to administer IM meds with the side rails down, and then raising them when the nurse is done. Other activities can then be carried out more safely.

Question 5 of 5

At 10:00 A.M., the nurse discovers a 75-year-old woman who is hospitalized with congestive heart failure on the floor beside the bed. She has a bruise on her leg, but x-rays reveal no fractures. How should the nurse record the incident in the client's chart?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Accurate documentation includes specific details: time, client status, mechanism of fall, assessment findings (bruise size, orientation), and actions taken (physician notification, x-rays). This option is thorough and objective, unlike the others, which are vague or incomplete.

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