NCLEX-PN
PN NCLEX Practice Test Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
An adult diagnosed with celiac disease 3 weeks ago was placed on a gluten-free diet. The client returns for ambulatory care follow-up, reports continuation of symptoms, and does not seem to be responding to therapy. Which is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Asking about recent food intake helps identify unintentional gluten exposure, common in new celiac diagnoses. Assuming 6-8 weeks, immediate referral, or blaming non-compliance may overlook dietary errors or other causes.
Question 2 of 5
An adult who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) with expressive aphasia has started saying some words. The client's family is quite upset because the words are mostly profanity. They tell the nurse that the client usually does not use profanity. How should the nurse respond to the family?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Profanity in early expressive aphasia post-CVA is common due to disinhibition in damaged brain areas; reassuring the family that other words will follow is appropriate.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is teaching the parent of a 7-year-old client with celiac disease. Which statement by the parent would require follow-up?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Barley contains gluten, which is harmful in celiac disease, indicating a need for further teaching. Rice, corn, potatoes, lifelong gluten-free diet, and avoiding processed foods are correct.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a child admitted with measles. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate for this client? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,D
Rationale: Measles is highly contagious, requiring negative pressure isolation to prevent airborne spread and vaccination for susceptible contacts to prevent outbreaks. Calamine is for skin conditions like chickenpox, tracheostomy is not indicated, and N95 masks are for tuberculosis, not measles (droplet precautions).
Question 5 of 5
A diabetic client asks the nurse why she should use a diaphragm as a method of contraception instead of birth control pills. The best explanation for the use of a diaphragm is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A diaphragm does not affect blood glucose, unlike oral contraceptives, which can alter glycemic control. Oral contraceptives are not ineffective due to glucose levels, diaphragms do not prevent implantation or ovulation, and they are not intrauterine.