NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 6 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an acute exacerbation. Her vital signs are: BP 162/100, pulse 78, respirations 30 and labored with wheezing. The nurse should question which of the following orders?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, can cause bronchoconstriction, worsening COPD. Options A, B, and C are appropriate: theophylline bronchodilates, tetracycline treats infections, and ipratropium reduces bronchospasm.
Question 2 of 5
A two year-old child is brought to the provider's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for two days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which statement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current recommendations for mild to moderate diarrhea are to maintain a normal diet with fluids to rehydrate.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of type 2 diabetes who is receiving insulin aspart (NovoLog) 10 units subcutaneously before meals. Which of the following findings would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sweating and shakiness indicate hypoglycemia, a serious complication of insulin aspart, requiring immediate treatment with carbohydrates. Options A, B, and D are less concerning: glucose 80 mg/dL is normal, heart rate 90 bpm and blood pressure 130/80 mmHg are stable.
Extract:
A school-aged child who was diagnosed two weeks ago with hepatitis A.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following responses by the nurse is BEST?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: All answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) communicable for 2-3 weeks before onset of jaundice and about 1 week after onset of jaundice (2) passing the buck (3) correct-type A hepatitis is not infectious within a week or so after the onset of jaundice, child can return to school (4) can return to school, activity at that time depends on the child's energy level
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
The nurse should explain to a client that tolbutamide (Orinase) is effective for diabetics who
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Tolbutamide, an oral hypoglycemic, is effective for type II diabetics who produce minimal insulin, enhancing insulin release. Type I diabetics (no insulin production) require insulin injections, and the other options do not align with tolbutamide’s mechanism or indications.