NCLEX Questions, NCLEX Trainer Test 3 Questions, NCLEX-PN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 157

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Test Bank

NCLEX Trainer Test 3 Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A woman who was recently diagnosed with multiple myeloma says to the nurse, 'Why did this happen to me? I've always been a good person. What did I do to deserve this?' What should the nurse do initially?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Acknowledging the client's emotional distress validates her feelings, fostering therapeutic communication. Other responses dismiss or redirect her concerns.

Question 2 of 5

An adult is admitted with gastroenteritis. The physician has ordered prochlorperazine (Compazine) 10 mg PO tid PRN or prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg suppository every 6 hours PRN and loperamide (Imodium) 2 mg PO PRN. The client has an episode of diarrhea and complains of nausea. What should the nurse administer?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Nausea and diarrhea warrant both prochlorperazine (anti-emetic) and loperamide (anti-diarrheal) orally, addressing both symptoms effectively.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is assisting the physician with the insertion of a central venous catheter. Which statement best explains the rationale for placing the client in Trendelenburg position?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Trendelenburg position elevates the veins, making central venous catheter insertion easier. Comfort , tachycardia , and emboli are not primary concerns.

Extract:

A client is seen in the clinic for complaints of back pain.


Question 4 of 5

Which of the following actions, if performed by the client, would indicate that teaching has been effective?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Strategy: 'Teaching has been effective' indicates a true statement. (1) causes stress on lumbar region of back (2) causes stress on lower spine (3) correct-provides lumbar flexion, decreasing pressure on lower spine (4) should have feet apart for wide base of support

Extract:


Question 5 of 5

Which assessment finding is most indicative of increased ICP in a client admitted with a basilar skull fracture?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Papilledema, or swelling of the optic disc, is a specific sign of increased intracranial pressure due to pressure on the optic nerve. Nausea, vomiting, headache, and dizziness are less specific symptoms, so answers A, B, and C are incorrect.

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