NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Free Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A six-month-old infant is receiving ribavirin for the treatment of respiratory syncytial virus. Ribavirin is administered via which one of the following routes?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ribavirin is not supplied in an oral form. Ribavirin is administered by aerosol in order to decrease the duration of viral shedding within the infected tissue. Ribavirin is not approved for IV use to treat respiratory syncytial virus. Ribavirin is a synthetic antiviral agent supplied as a crystalline powder that is reconstituted with sterile water. A Small Aerosol Particle Generator unit aerosolizes the medication for delivery by oxygen hood, croup tent, or aerosol mask.
Question 2 of 5
When caring for a postoperative cholecystectomy client, the nurse assesses patency and documents drainage of the T-tube. The nurse recognizes that the expected amount of drainage during the first 24 hours postoperatively is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the first 24 hours after surgery, the drainage is normally 300-500 mL and then decreases to about 200 mL in 24 hours during the next 3-4 days. This range is the amount of drainage after the first 24 hours postoperatively. During the first 24 hours, it is 300-500 mL. During the first 24 hours after surgery, this range is the expected amount of drainage. The expected amount of drainage during the first 24 hours is 300-500 mL. An output of >500 mL should be reported to the physician, because an occlusion of some type, caused by a retained gallstone or an inflammatory process within the biliary drainage system, is evident.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which medication would the nurse expect to administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, reduces acid production, aiding ulcer healing. Ibuprofen (
A) and aspirin (
C) worsen ulcers, and acetaminophen (
D) addresses pain but not acid.
Question 4 of 5
Decreased pulmonary blood flow, right-to-left shunting, and deoxygenated blood reaching the systemic circulation are characteristic of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cyanotic heart defect, which includes a VSD, pulmonary stenosis, an overriding aorta, and ventricular hypertrophy. The blood flow is obstructed because the pulmonary stenosis decreases the pulmonary blood flow and shunts blood through the VSD, creating a right-to-left shunt that allows deoxygenated blood to reach the systemic circulation. A VSD alone creates a left-to-right shunt. The pressure in the left ventricle is greater than that of the right; therefore, the blood will shunt from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, increasing the blood flow to the lungs. No deoxygenated blood will reach the Systemic circulation. In patent ductus arteriosus, the pressure in the aorta is greater than in the pulmonary artery, creating a left-to-right shunt. Oxygenated blood from the aorta flows into the unoxygenated blood of the pulmonary artery. Transposition of the great arteries results in two separate and parallel circulatory systems. The only mixing or shunting of blood is based on the presence of associated lesions.
Question 5 of 5
The client is admitted with a diagnosis of gestational diabetes. Which fetal monitoring technique is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gestational diabetes increases fetal risks (e.g. macrosomia hypoglycemia) requiring close monitoring. Non-stress tests assess fetal heart rate and biophysical profiles evaluate fetal well-being comprehensively. Both are appropriate.