NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A pregnant client who is at 34 weeks gestation is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of these medications would the nurse anticipate the provider ordering?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Heparin infusion to maintain the PTT at 1.5-2.5 times the control value. In pregnant women with pulmonary embolism, heparin is preferred over warfarin due to warfarin's teratogenic effects. A continuous heparin infusion is typically used to achieve therapeutic anticoagulation, monitored by maintaining the PTT at 1.5-2.5 times the control value.
Question 2 of 5
A client admitted with a severe head injury following an MVA is placed on a ventilator, and hyperventilation is maintained. The primary reason for maintaining hyperventilation is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hyperventilation reduces $\mathrm{CO}_2$, causing cerebral vasoconstriction, which decreases cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure in head injuries.
Question 3 of 5
A pregnant client who is at 34 weeks gestation is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of these medications would the nurse anticipate the provider ordering?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Heparin infusion to maintain the PTT at 1.5-2.5 times the control value. In pregnant women with pulmonary embolism, heparin is preferred over warfarin due to warfarin's teratogenic effects. A continuous heparin infusion is typically used to achieve therapeutic anticoagulation, monitored by maintaining the PTT at 1.5-2.5 times the control value.
Extract:
A client experiencing hallucinations.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following behaviors by a client should the nurse record to indicate that the client is experiencing hallucinations?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Think about each answer choice. (1) describes behavior associated with depression (2) correct-hallucinations are sensory perceptions for which there is no external stimulus; this option describes client behavior that would be observed when the client is responding to voices (3) describes behavior associated with delusional thinking (4) describes behavior most associated with anxiety
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
The treatment protocol for a client with acute lymphatic leukemia includes Orasone (prednisone), Trexall (methotrexate), and Zantac (ranitidine). The purpose of Zantac is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Zantac (ranitidine) prevents gastric irritation and ulcers, a common side effect of prednisone. It does not affect pancreatic enzymes, methotrexate efficacy, or peristalsis.