NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A pregnant client is at the clinic for a third trimester prenatal visit. During this examination, it has been determined that her fetus is in a vertex presentation with the occiput located in her right anterior quadrant. On her chart this would be noted as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The fetus in the right occipitoposterior position would be presenting with the occiput in the maternal right posterior quadrant. Fetal position is defined by the location of the fetal presenting part in the four quadrants of the maternal pelvis. The right occipitoanterior is a fetus presenting with the occiput in mother's right anterior quadrant. The fetus in right sacroanterior position would be presenting a sacrum, not an occiput. The fetus in left occipitoanterior position would be presenting with the occiput in the mother's left anterior quadrant.
Question 2 of 5
A pregnant client comes to the office for her first prenatal examination at 10 weeks. She has been pregnant twice before; the first delivery produced a viable baby girl at 39 weeks 3 years ago; the second pregnancy produced a viable baby boy at 36 weeks 2 years ago. Both children are living and well. Using the GTPAL system to record her obstetrical history, the nurse should record:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: G=3 (current pregnancy), T=1 (term birth), P=1 (preterm birth), A=0 (no abortions), L=2 (living children).
Question 3 of 5
When the nurse checks the fundus of a client on the first postpartum day,she notes that the fundus is firm level with the umbilicus and displaced to the side. The next action the nurse should take is to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A displaced fundus on the first postpartum day is often due to bladder distention which pushes the uterus aside. Checking for bladder distention (e.g. by palpation or encouraging voiding) is the next step to correct the displacement.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of diverticulitis complains of abdominal pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which food is most likely responsible for the client's symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Whole-grain cereal, high in fiber and seeds, can irritate diverticulitis, causing pain, fever, and diarrhea. Low-fiber foods like potatoes, carrots, and fish are less likely to trigger symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
A 22-year-old client who is being seen in the clinic for a possible asthma attack stops wheezing suddenly as the nurse is doing a lung assessment. Which one of the following nursing interventions is most important?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During impending respiratory failure or asthmatic complications, the client is placed in the high-Fowler position to facilitate comfort and promote optimal gas exchange. Arterial blood gases are monitored in the treatment of respiratory failure during an asthma attack, but it is not an initial intervention. O2 therapy is used during an asthma attack, but it is not the initial intervention. The usual prescribed amount is a cautiously low flow rate of 1-2 L/min. Wheezing is a characteristic clinical finding during an asthma attack. If wheezing suddenly ceases, it usually indicates a complete airway obstruction and requires immediate treatment for respiratory failure or arrest.