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Question 1 of 5

A physician's order reads: Administer KCl 10% oral solution 1.5 mL. The KCl bottle reads 20 mEq/15 mL. What dosage should the nurse administer to the infant?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: 1.33 mEq = 1 mL, then 1.5 mL X = 1.99, or 2 mEq.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from a fractured femur. Which diet selection would be best for this client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A diet for fracture recovery needs protein, calcium, and vitamin C. Mandarin orange salad (vitamin
C), broiled chicken (protein), and milk (calcium) (
D) are optimal. Other options are less nutrient-dense.

Question 3 of 5

The following nursing diagnosis is written for a comatose client with cirrhosis of the liver and secondary splenomegaly--High risk for injury: Increased susceptibility to bleeding related to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: There is a decreased absorption of vitamin K with cirrhosis of the liver. This decrease impairs blood coagulation and the formation of prothrombin. Thrombocytopenia, an increased destruction of platelets, occurs secondary to hypersplenism. A diminished function of the Kupffer cells occurs with cirrhosis of the liver, causing the client to become more susceptible to infections. A decrease in the synthesis of fibrinogen and clotting factors VII, IX, and X occurs with cirrhosis of the liver and increases the susceptibility to bleeding.

Question 4 of 5

The client is admitted with a diagnosis of molar pregnancy. Which symptom is most likely to be present?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Molar pregnancy (hydatidiform mole) often causes severe nausea and vomiting due to high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). The uterus is typically larger than expected and fetal heart tones are absent as there is no viable fetus.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse should carefully monitor a client for the following side effect of MgSO4:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should provide good distractors because these symptoms indicate that PIH has become more severe and may precede the convulsive or eclamptic phase. This is the opposite side effect of this medication. This is a common side effect of this medication and needs to be monitored and recorded frequently.

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