NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 8 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nursing assistant reports to the RN that a patient with anemia is complaining of weakness. Which of the following responses by the nurse to the nursing assistant is BEST?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: standard, unchanging procedure; decrease cardiac workload
Question 2 of 5
A 38-year-old woman, mother of two, has a mastectomy for breast cancer.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Frequent crying and difficulty coping one month post-mastectomy reflect a normal grieving process for the loss of a body part. Helping family cope is premature, social withdrawal indicates abnormal adjustment, and immediate return to normal activities suggests denial, which is too early for integration.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of depression who is receiving venlafaxine (Effexor) 75 mg PO bid. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse report immediately?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Suicidal thoughts are a medical emergency with venlafaxine. Options A, B, and D are common side effects.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse observes a LPN/LVN perform a wet-to-dry dressing change on a 2-inch abdominal incision.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Packing wet gauze into the incision without overlapping onto the skin prevents skin breakdown from prolonged moisture exposure. Cleansing should be from the center outward, dressings should be pre-soaked, and old dressings are removed dry to debride the wound.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes about insulin glargine (Lantus). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Taking insulin glargine when blood sugar is high is incorrect, as it is a long-acting basal insulin for steady control, not for acute hyperglycemia. Options A, B, and C are correct: bedtime dosing is standard, it should not be mixed, and rotation prevents lipodystrophy.