NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse has asked a second staff nurse to sign for a wasted narcotic, which was not witnessed by another person. This seems to be a recent pattern of behavior. What is the appropriate initial action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The incident must be reported to the appropriate supervisor, for both ethical and legal reasons. This is not an incident that a co-worker can resolve without referral to a manager.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is performing an admission history for a client recovering from a stroke. Medication history reveals the drug clopidogrel (Plavix). Which clinical manifestation alerts the nurse to an adverse effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding, such as epistaxis (nosebleeds). Abdominal distention, nausea, and hyperactivity are not typical adverse effects of clopidogrel, so answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
Extract:
A client is going to be taking imipramine (Tofranil) at home following discharge.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following immediately to the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Strategy: Think about each answer choice. (1) correct-possible side effects of
Tofranil, a tricyclic antidepressant medication, which can be resolved by altering the dosage or changing the medication (2) describes side effects of antidepressants, which client can learn to manage at home without changing the medication (3) describes side effects of a different category of medications (4) describes side effects of a different category of medications
Extract:
A client in labor is receiving magnesium sulfate IV.
Question 4 of 5
Which assessment is MOST important to give during report to the nurse on the next shift?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Strategy: Determine how each answer choice relates to magnesium sulfate. (1) not a concern because the respirations are increasing (2) not relevant to the medication (3) not relevant to the medication (4) correct-magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant; side effect is oliguria
Extract:
A patient several days after an above-knee amputation (AKA).
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following symptoms would be characteristic of an infected stump wound?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: Determine how each answer choice relates to an infected wound. (1) may be due to changes in body image or pain (2) expected, not indicative of an infection (3) correct-pain is characteristic of inflammation and infection (4) warm skin above site would indicate infection