NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Practice Test RN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A female client is started on warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg po bid. To adequately evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy, the nurse must know that this medication:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thrombolytic agents (e.g., streptokinase) directly activate plasminogen, dissolving fibrin deposits, which in turn dissolves clots that have already formed. Heparin prevents the formation of clots by potentiating the effects of antithrombin III and the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Warfarin prevents the formation of clots by interfering with the hepatic synthesis of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Platelets initiate the coagulation of blood by adhering to each other and the site of injury to form platelet plugs.
Question 2 of 5
A 48-year-old client is being seen in her physician's office for complaints of indigestion, heartburn, right upper quadrant pain, and nausea of 4 days' duration, especially after meals. The nurse realizes that these symptoms may be associated with cholecystitis and therefore would check for which specific sign during the abdominal assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This sign is a faint blue discoloration around the umbilicus found in clients who have hemorrhagic pancreatitis. This sign indicates areas of inflammation within the peritoneum, such as with appendicitis. It is a deep palpation technique used on a nontender area of the abdomen, and when the palpating hand is removed suddenly, the client experiences a sharp, stabbing pain at an area of peritoneal inflammation. This sign is considered positive with acute cholecystitis when the client is unable to take a deep breath while the right upper quadrant is being deeply palpated. The client will elicit a sudden, sharp gasp, which means the gallbladder is acutely inflamed. This is a sign of acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis and manifests as a green or purple discoloration in the flanks.
Question 3 of 5
MgSO4 is ordered IV following the established protocol for a client with severe PIH. The anticipated effects of this therapy are anticonvulsant and:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An anticonvulsant effect is the goal of drug therapy for PIH. However, we would not want to increase the vasoconstriction that is already present. This would make the symptoms more severe. An anticonvulsant effect and vasodilation are the desired outcomes when administering this drug. An anticonvulsant effect is the goal of drug therapy for PIH; however, hypertensive drugs would increase the blood pressure even more. An anticonvulsant effect is the goal of drug therapy for PIH. MgSO4 is not classified as an antiemetic. Antiemetics are not indicated for PIH treatment.
Question 4 of 5
An amniocentesis at 32 weeks gestation reveals that a multigravida with diabetes has an L/S ratio of 1:1 with the presence of phosphatidylglycerol. Based on the amniocentesis,the nurse knows that if delivered now:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An L/S ratio of 1:1 at 32 weeks indicates immature fetal lungs increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) if delivered now. Phosphatidylglycerol presence is positive but does not fully mitigate RDS risk. The other risks are not directly related to the L/S ratio.
Question 5 of 5
Which method of transmission would most likely result in contamination with botulism?
Correct Answer: B, D
Rationale: Botulism is caused by Clostridium botulinum toxin, typically from contaminated food (e.g., perforated cans,
B) or wound contamination (
D). It is not transmitted person-to-person (
A), via mosquitoes (
C), goat saliva (E), or cat litter dust (F).