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NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions

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Question 1 of 5

A female client has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure. She is a candidate for either peritoneal dialysis or hemodialysis and must make a choice between the two. Which information should the nurse give her to help her decide?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hemodialysis is faster in clearing the blood of toxins than peritoneal dialysis. However, clients must consider the time that they spend traveling to the dialysis center and the disruption in their daily lives. Peritoneal dialysis requires several exchanges with dwelling time for the dialysate and therefore takes longer than hemodialysis. Several serious complications of peritoneal dialysis include peritonitis, catheter displacement and/or plugging, or pain during dialysis. A client can be taught to self-administer peritoneal dialysis without the aid of a professional.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a C4 spinal cord injury has been placed in traction with cervical tongs. Nursing care should include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Sterile pin care prevents infection at the cervical tong insertion sites, a critical nursing responsibility. Releasing traction, loosening pins, or elevating the bed risks spinal instability.

Question 3 of 5

The client is instructed regarding foods that are low in fat and cholesterol. Which diet selection is lowest in saturated fats?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Turkey breast is lean and low in saturated fats compared to macaroni and cheese (high in dairy fat) shrimp (moderate cholesterol) and meat sauce (contains beef fat). It is the best choice for a low-fat low-cholesterol diet.

Question 4 of 5

A client is admitted to the postpartal unit with a large amount of lochia rubra, uterine enlargement, and excessive clots. Which medication will likely be ordered for the client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Hemabate, a prostaglandin, is used to treat postpartum hemorrhage by promoting uterine contractions to control bleeding. Fentanyl and Stadol are analgesics, and Prepidil is for labor induction, not hemorrhage.

Question 5 of 5

A client is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. During the intake assessment, the nurse can expect to find that the client has:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acute adrenal crisis (Addisonian crisis) causes hypotension due to cortisol and aldosterone deficiency, leading to shock. Pulse is typically rapid, skin is cool, and urination decreases.

Similar Questions

The day following his admission, the nurse sits down by a male client on the sofa in the dayroom. He was admitted for depression and thoughts of suicide. He looks at the nurse and says, 'My life is so bad no one can do anything to help me.' The most helpful initial response by the nurse would be:
A client newly diagnosed with diabetes is started on Precose (acarbose). The nurse should tell the client that the medication should be taken:
A 20-year-old client presents to the obstetrics-gynecology clinic for the first time. She tells the nurse that she is pregnant and wants to start prenatal care. After collecting some initial assessment data, the nurse measures her fundal height to be at the level of the umbilicus. The nurse estimates the fetal gestational age to be approximately:
The client is admitted with a diagnosis of gestational trophoblastic disease. Which vital sign change is most likely to be observed?
The nurse is assessing the laboratory results of a client scheduled to receive phenytoin sodium (Dilantin). The Dilantin level, drawn two hours ago, is 30 mcg/mL. What is the appropriate nursing action?

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