NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Free Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A female client at 37 weeks' gestation has just undergone a nonstress test. The results were two fetal movements with a corresponding increase in fetal heart rate (FHR) of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds within a 20-minute period. Her results would be classified as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A contraction stress test is unnecessary following a reactive (normal) nonstress test. The results are considered reactive, indicating that the fetus is not showing distress.
Therefore, a contraction stress test, which is a more in-depth test for fetal distress, is unnecessary. A nonreactive test would show fewer than two fetal movements or a failure of the FHR to increase at least 15 bpm with the movements in a 20-minute period. A contraction stress test should follow a nonreactive nonstress test to validate fetal distress.
Question 2 of 5
A client has developed diabetes insipidus after removal of a pituitary tumor. Which finding would the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus causes polyuria due to deficient antidiuretic hormone, leading to excessive water loss. Hypertension (
B), polyphagia (
C), and hyperkalemia (
D) are not typical.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is admitted with complaints of fatigue. The nurse should give priority to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue in chronic kidney disease often results from anemia due to low erythropoietin, so monitoring for anemia is the priority.
Question 4 of 5
A 27-year-old healthy primigravida is brought to the labor and birthing room by her husband at 32 weeks' gestation. She experienced a sudden onset of painless vaginal bleeding. Following an ultrasound examination, the diagnosis of bleeding secondary to complete placenta previa is made. Expected assessment findings concerning the abdomen would include:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A rigid, boardlike abdomen is an assessment finding indicative of placenta abruptio. A cause of postbirth hemorrhage is uterine atony. With placenta previa, uterine tone is within normal range. The placenta is located directly over the cervical os in complete previa. Blood will escape through the os, resulting in the uterus and abdomen remaining soft and relaxed. In placenta abruptio, hypertonicity of the uterus is caused by the entrapment of blood between the placenta and uterine wall, a retroplacental bleed. This does not exist in placenta previa.
Question 5 of 5
A 9-week-old female infant has a diagnosis of bilateral cleft lip and cleft palate. She has been admitted to the pediatric unit after surgical repair of the cleft lip. Which of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate during the first 24 hours?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placing the infant on her abdomen may allow for injury to the suture line. Elbow restraints prevent the infant from touching the suture line and yet leaves hands free. The suture line is cleaned as often as every hour to prevent crusting and scarring. Sucking of a bottle or pacifier places pressure on the suture line and may delay healing and cause scarring.