NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Nursing Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A female client at 30 weeks' gestation is brought into the emergency department after falling down a flight of stairs. On examination, the physician notes a rigid, boardlike abdomen; FHR in the 160s; and stable vital signs. Considering possible abdominal trauma, which obstetric emergency must be anticipated?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Abruptio placentae, the complete or partial separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, can be caused by external trauma. When hemorrhage is concealed, one sign is a rapid increase in uterine size with rigidity. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the embryo implants itself outside the uterine cavity. Massive uterine rupture occurs during labor when the uterine contents are extruded through the uterine wall. It is usually due to weakness from a pre-existing uterine scar and trauma from instruments or an obstetrical intervention. Placenta previa is the condition in which the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment and either completely or partially covers the cervical os.
Question 2 of 5
When teaching a mother of a 4-month-old with diarrhea about the importance of preventing dehydration, the nurse would inform the mother about the importance of feeding her child:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diluted fruit juices are not recommended for rehydration because they tend to aggravate the diarrhea. Diluted soft drinks have a high-carbohydrate content, which aggravates the diarrhea. Soy-based, lactose-free formula reduces stool output and duration of diarrhea in most infants. Regular formulas contain lactose, which can increase diarrhea.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is performing an admission history for a client recovering from a stroke. Medication history reveals the drug clopidogrel (Plavix). Which clinical manifestation alerts the nurse to an adverse effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet, increases bleeding risk. Epistaxis (nosebleed) is a significant adverse effect. Hypothermia (
B), nausea (
C), and hyperactivity (
D) are not associated with clopidogrel.
Question 4 of 5
A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with Legg-Calvé Perthes disease. Which of the client's responses would indicate compliance during initial therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This condition causes aseptic necrosis of the head of the femur in the acetabulum. Drinking large quantities of milk at this time cannot hasten recovery. The aim of treatment is to keep the head of the femur in the acetabulum. Nonweight-bearing is essential. Activity causes microfractures of the epiphysis. In addition to nonweight-bearing, clients are often placed on bedrest, which helps to reduce inflammation. Later, active motion is encouraged. Weight is not generally an issue with this disease. Slipped femoral capital epiphysis, which is most frequently observed in obese pubescent children, usually requires a weight reduction diet.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client admitted with TIAs. Assessment findings reveal an absence of the gag reflex. The nurse suspects injury to which of the following cranial nerves?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The vagus nerve (X) innervates the pharynx and larynx, contributing to the gag reflex. Absence of the gag reflex suggests vagus nerve injury. Hypoglossal (XII) controls tongue movement, glossopharyngeal (IX) aids taste and swallowing, and facial (VII) controls facial muscles.