NCLEX Questions, PN NCLEX Practice Test Questions, NCLEX-PN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 164

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Question 1 of 5

A diabetic client asks the nurse why she should use a diaphragm as a method of contraception instead of birth control pills. The best explanation for the use of a diaphragm is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A diaphragm does not affect blood glucose, unlike oral contraceptives, which can alter glycemic control. Oral contraceptives are not ineffective due to glucose levels, diaphragms do not prevent implantation or ovulation, and they are not intrauterine.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client with portal hypertension. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ascites. Portal hypertension can occur in a client with right-sided heart failure or cirrhosis of the liver. Portal hypertension can lead to ascites due to the increased portal pressure as well as a lowered colloid osmotic pressure because of low albumin. When liver functioning deteriorates, protein metabolism suffers.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is teaching a client about newly prescribed amlodipine. Which adverse effect would be most important for the nurse to include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Dizziness, due to amlodipine’s vasodilatory effect, is a common and critical side effect, risking falls, especially in the elderly. Depression, cough, and erectile dysfunction are less common or associated with other drugs.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is contributing to a staff education program about assessing the urinary system. Which statement by a nurse would indicate a correct understanding of the program?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An empty bladder is nontender and nonpalpable, indicating correct understanding. Dark brown urine suggests dehydration or other issues, not UTI; kidneys are not always palpable; and percussion is over the costovertebral angle, not lower abdomen.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is caring for an elderly client after hip replacement surgery. The client is distressed because he has not had a bowel movement in 3 days. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A focused abdominal assessment determines the cause of constipation (e.g., impaction, obstruction) before interventions like laxatives, dietary changes, or RN notification, ensuring safe and targeted care.

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