NCLEX-PN
PN NCLEX Practice Test Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A diabetic client asks the nurse why she should use a diaphragm as a method of contraception instead of birth control pills. The best explanation for the use of a diaphragm is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A diaphragm does not affect blood glucose, unlike oral contraceptives, which can alter glycemic control. Oral contraceptives are not ineffective due to glucose levels, diaphragms do not prevent implantation or ovulation, and they are not intrauterine.
Question 2 of 5
A client is being evaluated for carpal tunnel syndrome. The nurse is observed asking the client to place the backs of her hands together and flex them at the same time. Which assessment is the nurse performing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phalen's maneuver involves flexing the wrists with the backs of the hands together to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome, as it may reproduce symptoms. Tinel's sign involves tapping over the median nerve. Kernig's and Brudzinski's are tests for meningitis, not carpal tunnel syndrome.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is talking with a client with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Due to a computer malfunction, the procedure is being postponed by 2 hours. Which of the following responses by the client would be consistent with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder involves rigidity and need for control, so resistance to schedule changes is typical. The other responses reflect anger, paranoia, or flexibility, less characteristic of the disorder.
Question 4 of 5
At a community health fair the blood pressure of a 62 year-old client is 160/96. The client states 'My blood pressure is usually much lower.' The nurse should tell the client to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The blood pressure reading is moderately high with the need to have it rechecked in a few days. Although the client states it is 'usually much lower,' a concern exists for complications such as stroke. An immediate check by the provider of care is not warranted. Waiting 2 months or a week for follow-up is too long.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions for a client with degenerative joint disease and a new prescription for naproxen. What instructions regarding this drug does the nurse include? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D,E
Rationale: Tarry stools indicate potential GI bleeding, a serious naproxen side effect, and taking with food reduces GI irritation. Driving, position changes, and suicidal thoughts are not primary concerns with naproxen.