NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN High-Yield Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with type I diabetes mellitus is scheduled to have surgery. The client has been NPO since midnight. In the morning, the nurse notices the client's daily insulin has not been ordered. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Contacting the physician for insulin orders is critical, as NPO status and surgery alter glucose needs, requiring individualized dosing.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed tofacitinib (Xeljanz). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Tofacitinib, a JAK inhibitor, increases the risk of infections due to immune suppression.
Question 3 of 5
Long-term administration of gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) to a client has been discontinued. The nurse should assess which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gentamicin can cause ototoxicity, affecting the vestibular system, so a vestibular check in 3 to 4 weeks is necessary to assess for balance issues. The other options are not directly related to gentamicin's side effects.
Question 4 of 5
A multigravid client is scheduled for a percutaneous umbilical blood sampling procedure. The nurse instructs the client that this procedure is useful for diagnosing which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling is used to diagnose fetal conditions like Rh disease by directly sampling fetal blood for analysis.
Question 5 of 5
When assessing for signs of a blood transfusion reaction in a client with dark skin, the nurse should assess for which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diaphoresis is a visible sign of a transfusion reaction, detectable regardless of skin tone, indicating an acute response.