NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 4 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
To prevent dumping syndrome, the client should avoid large meals high in simple sugars and liquids, which can cause rapid gastric emptying. The client should recline after meals, drink fluids between meals, and reduce carbohydrate intake to stabilize digestion.
Extract:
A 52-year-old woman has an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix. The nurse observes a student nurse perform a wet-to-dry dressing change on the 2-in incision.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following behaviors, if performed by the student nurse, would require an intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Strategy: 'Require an intervention' indicates an incorrect action. (1) correct-should be removed dry so wound debris and necrotic tissue are removed with old dressing (2) done to protect clothing and bedding (3) purpose of wet-to-dry dressing (4) appropriate procedure
Extract:
The nurse is reviewing client assignments on a medical/surgical unit.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse determines that the assignment is appropriate if the nursing assistant is caring for which of the following clients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Strategy: Assign clients with standard, unchanging procedures. (1) correct-standard, unchanging procedure (2) assign to the RN (3) assign to the RN (4) assign to the RN
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a 14 month-old just diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. The parents state this is the first child in either family with this disease, and ask about the risk to future children. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 1 in 4 risk for each child to have the disease. Cystic fibrosis is autosomal recessive, with a 25% chance of the disease per pregnancy if both parents are carriers.
Extract:
A client is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion for management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 1.5 times greater than normal.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following actions by the nurse is MOST appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Does this situation require validation? No. Determine the outcome of each answer. (1) no reason to discontinue or slow the infusion because the PTT is within a therapeutic range (2) no reason to discontinue or slow the infusion because the PTT is within a therapeutic range (3) prothrombin time (PT) Test is useful for assessing warfarin (Coumadin) therapy (4) correct-expected result of heparin therapy is a prolonged PTT of 1.5 times the control, without signs of hemorrhage