NCLEX-RN
ATI NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with a femoral popliteal bypass graft is assigned to a semiprivate room. The most suitable roommate for this client is the client with:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client with hypothyroidism is the most suitable roommate, as this condition is non-infectious and poses no risk to the immunocompromised vascular surgery client. Gastroenteritis and bacterial pneumonia are infectious, and diabetic ulcers may involve infection, increasing cross-contamination risk.
Question 2 of 5
The client is prescribed ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for a urinary tract infection. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, so avoiding sun exposure prevents skin reactions. Dairy products reduce absorption, and the full course must be completed, regardless of symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
A client with metastatic cancer of the lung has just been told the prognosis by the oncologist. The nurse hears the client state, "I don't believe the doctor; I think he has me confused with another patient."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client's statement reflects denial, the first stage of Kubler-Ross' model, where patients refuse to accept a terminal prognosis. Anger (
B), depression (
C), and bargaining (
D) involve different emotional responses.
Question 4 of 5
A 27-year-old primigravida stated that she got up from the chair to fix dinner and bright red blood was running down her legs. She denies any pain previously or currently. The client is very concerned about whether her baby will be all right. Her vital signs include P 120 bpm, respirations 26 breaths/min, BP 104/58 mm Hg, temperature 98.2_F, and fetal heart rate 146 bpm. Laboratory findings revealed hemoglobin 9.0 g/dL, hematocrit 26%, and coagulation studies within normal range. On admission, the peripad she wore was noted to be half saturated with bright red blood. A medical diagnosis of placenta previa is made. The priority nursing diagnosis for this client would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Based on the client's history, presence of bright red vaginal bleeding, and hemoglobin value on admission, the priority nursing diagnosis would be decreased cardiac output related to excessive bleeding. This nursing diagnosis is a potential problem that does not exist at the present time, and therefore is not the priority problem. The client's expressed anxiety is for her child. The fetus will remain physiologically safe if the decreased cardiac output is resolved. Initial spontaneous bleeding with placenta previa is rarely life threatening to the mother or the fetus. Delivery of the fetus will be postponed until fetal maturity is achieved and survival is likely.
Question 5 of 5
In the coronary care unit, a client has developed multifocal premature ventricular contractions. The nurse should anticipate the administration of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lidocaine is the drug of choice to treat ectopic ventricular beats.