NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions PDF Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client was to receive 1 g of vancomycin intravenously in 200 mL of iso-osmotic solution over 60 minutes per infusion pump. However, the IV administration was discontinued after 45 minutes because the client developed nausea and chills. How many milligrams of vancomycin did the client receive? Record your answer using a whole number.
Correct Answer: 750
Rationale: 1 g = 1000 mg in 200 mL over 60 min. In 45 min, 45/60 = 0.75 of dose = 0.75 X 1000 = 750 mg.
Question 2 of 5
The physician has ordered a lumbar puncture for a client with suspected Guillain-Barre syndrome. The spinal fluid of a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome typically shows:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Guillain-Barre syndrome typically shows elevated protein levels in cerebrospinal fluid with a normal cell count, known as albuminocytologic dissociation.
Question 3 of 5
A 32-year-old woman comes into the clinic for a well-woman exam and asks for information on an intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception. The nurse should explain that all of the following are potential risks EXCEPT
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: IUD risks include pelvic infections, abnormal bleeding, and ectopic pregnancy. Stroke is not a recognized risk associated with IUD use.
Question 4 of 5
A client visiting a family planning clinic is suspected of having an STI. The best diagnostic test for treponema pallidum is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The fluorescent treponemal antibody (FT
A) test is highly specific for Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis, and is the best diagnostic test.
Question 5 of 5
The physician has ordered cortisporin ear drops for a 2-year-old. To administer the ear drops, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For children under 3, pulling the ear down and back straightens the ear canal for proper administration of ear drops.