NCLEX Questions, Mock NCLEX RN Exam Questions, NCLEX-RN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 158

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

Mock NCLEX RN Exam Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A client suffering from schizophrenia has been taking chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for 6 months. On one of his follow-up visits to the mental health center, the nurse reports to the physician that he has developed tardive dyskinesia. Which of the following symptoms might she have observed in the client to support this conclusion?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are found in clients with tardive dyskinesia.

Question 2 of 5

An elderly client refuses to take her daily medication for hypertension. Which action should the nurse take at this time?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Exploring the reason for the client’s refusal respects autonomy and may reveal misunderstandings, fears, or side effects that can be addressed. Administering by injection or with help violates autonomy, and skipping the dose delays treatment without addressing the issue.

Question 3 of 5

A client arrives in the emergency room with severe burns of the hands, right arm, face, and neck. The nurse needs to start an IV.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The left antecubital fossa is suitable for IV placement, avoiding burned areas (right hand, arm, face, neck). The foot (
C) is less ideal due to infection risk, and the left forearm (
D) may be too close to burn sites.

Question 4 of 5

A client with a history of a thyroidectomy is being discharged. The nurse should teach the client to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Muscle twitching post-thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia from parathyroid damage, requiring immediate reporting. Hyperthyroidism, calcium foods, and bedtime dosing are not primary concerns.

Question 5 of 5

A client suspected of having anorexia nervosa is placed on bed rest with an IV infusion and a high-carbohydrate liquid diet. Within 72 hours, the results of her lab work show a return to normal limits. She is transferred to the psychiatric service for further treatment. A behavior modification plan is initiated. Three days after her transfer, the client tells the nurse, 'I haven't exercised in 6 days. I won't be eating lunch today.' This statement by her most likely reflects:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Indirect self-destructive behavior such as that seen in anorexia nervosa is characterized by the client's lack of insight and the awareness that the outcome of the dieting, exercising, and weight loss will ultimately result in death if uninterrupted.

Similar Questions

Access More Questions!

NCLEX RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

 

NCLEX RN Premium


$150/ 90 days