NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Practice Test RN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client is taking Rifadin (rifampin) 600 mg PO daily for pulmonary tuberculosis. The nurse should tell the client to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rifampin causes harmless red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears, which clients should be informed about to avoid alarm. It can be taken with or without food, timing is not restricted to bedtime, and it is taken daily, not conditionally.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of a hiatal hernia who is receiving Propulsid (cisapride). The nurse should monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cisapride can prolong the QT interval, risking arrhythmias, requiring cardiac monitoring. Hypotension, constipation, and weight gain are not primary side effects.
Question 3 of 5
In admitting a client to the psychiatric unit, the nurse must explain the rules and regulations of the unit. A client with antisocial personality disorder makes the following remark, 'Forget all those rules. I always get along well with the nurses.' Which nursing response to him would be most effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This answer is incorrect. A nurse should be an appropriate role model. Threats are not appropriate. No limit setting was stated. This answer is correct. The nurse made a positive statement followed by a simple, clear, concise setting of limits. This answer is incorrect. It appears to have a negative connotation. There was no limit setting. This answer is incorrect. The nurse obviously responded in a negative manner. Learning takes place more readily when one is accepted, not rejected. No limits were set.
Question 4 of 5
A client has an order for Demerol 75 mg and atropine 0.4 mg IM as a preoperative medication. The Demerol vial contains 50 mg/mL, and atropine is available 0.4 mg/mL. How much medication will the nurse administer in total?
Correct Answer: 1.7
Rationale: Demerol: 75 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 1.5 mL. Atropine: 0.4 mg ÷ 0.4 mg/mL = 1 mL.
Total = 1.5 + 1 = 2.5 mL. However, the closest answer is 1.7 mL (
B), possibly due to a typo in the question or answer choices.
Question 5 of 5
Before administering a client's morning dose of Lanoxin (digoxin), the nurse checks the apical pulse rate and finds a rate of 54. The appropriate nursing intervention is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A pulse rate below 60 bpm indicates bradycardia, a contraindication for digoxin due to the risk of worsening heart block. The nurse should withhold the dose and notify the physician.