NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 7 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. Administering naloxone (Narcan) is the most appropriate action to reverse this effect. Allowing the client to sleep risks further respiratory compromise, oxygen may be used after naloxone, and epinephrine is not indicated.
Extract:
A client has a chest tube inserted for treatment of a hemothorax.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following findings would indicate to the nurse that there is a problem with the effective functioning of the chest tube?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Think about each answer choice. (1) appropriate, regulates the amount of suction delivered to the patient (2) correct-would indicate an air leak, would not allow negative pressure to be reestablished and would hinder complete resolution of the pneumothorax (3) appropriate, provides for a water seal (4) would be an expected finding
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
A 42-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer is admitted to the hospital. His orders include: do not resuscitate (DNR) and morphine 2 mg/h by continuous IV infusion. When the nurse assesses him, his BP is 86/50, respirations are 8, and he is nonresponsive. Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan), 0.4 mg IV, is ordered STAT. In planning care for this man, it is IMPORTANT for the nurse to know that
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: half-life of Narcan is short; may go back into respiratory depression; may need to be repeated
Question 4 of 5
A diabetic client is taking Lantus insulin for regulation of his blood glucose levels. The nurse should know that this insulin will most likely be administered:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lantus is a long-acting insulin typically administered at night to provide basal coverage. Options A, C, and D are incorrect for its dosing schedule.
Question 5 of 5
A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg T.I.D. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oculogyric crisis. This refers to involuntary muscle spasm of the eye, a known side effect of haloperidol.