NCLEX Questions, NCLEX RN Practice Questions, NCLEX-RN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 148

NCLEX-RN

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Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A client is diagnosed with stage II Hodgkin's lymphoma. The nurse recognizes that the client has involvement:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Stage II Hodgkin's lymphoma involves two or more lymph nodes or a single organ on the same side of the diaphragm, per the Ann Arbor staging system.

Question 2 of 5

During the initial interview, the client reports that she has a lesion on the perineum. Further investigation reveals a small blister on the vulva that is painful to touch. The nurse is aware that the most likely source of the lesion is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A painful blister on the vulva is most consistent with genital herpes, caused by the herpes simplex virus.

Question 3 of 5

An obstetrical client calls the clinic with complaints of morning sickness. The nurse should tell the client to:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Eating crackers before getting out of bed stabilizes stomach acid and blood sugar, reducing morning sickness.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is working in the trauma unit of the emergency room when a 24-year-old female is admitted after an MVA. The client is bleeding profusely and a blood transfusion is ordered. Which would the nurse be prepared to administer without a type and crossmatch?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: O negative blood is the universal donor type, safe for transfusion without type and crossmatch in emergencies, as it lacks antigens that could cause reactions.

Question 5 of 5

The orthopedic nurse should be particularly alert for a fat embolus in which of the following clients having the greatest risk for this complication after a fracture?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fat embolism is most common in long bone fractures, especially the femur, and in young adults. A 21-year-old with a femur fracture is at highest risk.

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