NCLEX Questions, Free PN NCLEX Practice Questions Questions,

Extract:

Question 1 of 5

A client is being admitted with a diagnosis of possible pancreatitis. Which of the following is the best support for this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The client's amylase level is elevated above the normal level of 200 U/L. This measurement is the most accurate indicator of pancreatitis and the most objective and specific. The answers in A, B, and D are also clinical manifestations of pancreatitis, but are not as specific as the laboratory value, so they are incorrect choices.

Question 2 of 5

A client with seizure disorder is to receive Dilantin (Phenytoin) and Phenobarbital. The nurse knows that when she administers Phenobarbital and Dilantin (Phenytoin):

A. A larger dose of Phenobarbital might be required. B. A smaller dose of Phenobarbital might be required. C. There will be no need to alter the amount of Phenobarbital. D. The two drugs cannot be given together.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Phenytoin induces liver enzymes, potentially reducing phenobarbital levels, so a larger dose of phenobarbital may be needed.

Question 3 of 5

An adult is to have a paracentesis performed today. What should the nurse do before the procedure?

A. Encourage the client to drink large amounts of fluids B. Ask the client to empty her bladder just before the test C. Keep the client NPO until after the procedure D. Premedicate the client as ordered

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Emptying the bladder before paracentesis prevents accidental puncture of the bladder during needle insertion into the abdominal cavity. Fluid intake, NPO status, or premedication are not immediate pre-procedure priorities.

Question 4 of 5

The client is being treated with intravenous Vancomycin for MRSA when the nurse notes redness of the client's neck and chest. Place in ordered sequence the actions to be taken by the nurse:

A. Call the doctor. B. Stop the IV infusion of Vancomycin. C. Administer Benadryl as ordered. D. Take the vital signs.

Correct Answer: B,D,C,A

Rationale: Redness suggests an allergic reaction or 'red man syndrome' from rapid vancomycin infusion. The nurse should: stop the infusion to prevent further reaction, take vital signs to assess severity, administer Benadryl if ordered, and call the doctor for further orders.

Extract:

Priority nursing diagnosis on the patient who was admitted with acute renal failure

Question 5 of 5

Priority nursing diagnosis on the patient who was admitted with acute renal failure would be:

A. Bed rest to conserve oxygen. B. Increase fluid intake to promote urination. C. Fatigue due to altered nutrition. D. Dehydration secondary to diuresis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fatigue due to altered nutrition is a priority in acute renal failure as it reflects metabolic imbalances and nutritional deficits.