NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Questions with Detailed Explanations Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client is a 43-year-old G2 P1 at 16 weeks' gestation that has completed prenatal testing for chromosomal abnormalities. The results reveal the infant is a female with Down syndrome. The nurse should tell the parents which of the following? Check all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,E,F
Rationale: Down syndrome can occur at any maternal age, is more frequent with advanced maternal age, and results from trisomy 21. It is not related to dominant/recessive traits or prenatal care.
Question 2 of 5
A 30-year-old client is hospitalized with a fractured femur, which is being treated with skeletal traction. He states that he has not had a bowel movement for 2 days. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate at this time?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Increasing fluid intake promotes bowel motility, addressing constipation in a client immobilized by traction.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse teaches the client diagnosed with acute gouty arthritis about the prescribed indomethacin therapy. The nurse determines that there is a need for further teaching when the client makes which statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Indomethacin may alleviate pain but is administered on a scheduled time frame, not on an as-needed schedule. Rest can be effective to relieve gouty arthritis pain. A rash could indicate hypersensitivity to the medication. The client should be instructed to monitor for swelling and gastric distress, which can be caused by the medication.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is counseling a client regarding treatment of the client's newly diagnosed depression. The nurse emphasizes that full benefit from antidepressant therapy usually takes how long?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Antidepressants typically take 2 to 4 weeks to achieve full therapeutic effect, as they require time to adjust neurotransmitter levels. Other timeframes are too short or overly prolonged.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client in labor who has butorphanol tartrate prescribed for the relief of labor pain. During the administration of the medication, the nurse should ensure that which priority item is readily available?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Butorphanol tartrate is an opioid analgesic that provides systemic pain relief during labor. The nurse should ensure that naloxone and resuscitation equipment are readily available to treat respiratory depression, should it occur. Meperidine hydrochloride is also an opioid analgesic that may be used for pain relief, but it also causes respiratory depression. Although an antiemetic may be prescribed for vomiting, antiemetics may enhance the respiratory depressant effects of the butorphanol tartrate. Although an IV access is desirable, the administration of normal saline is unrelated to the administration of this medication.