NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Free Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client had a right below-the-knee amputation 4 days ago. He is complaining of pain in his right lower leg. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phantom pain is a normal, very real experience for an amputee and should be treated with pain medication.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse should know that according to current thinking, the most important prognostic factor for a client with breast cancer is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Although tumor size is a factor in classification of cancer growth, it is not an indicator of lymph node spread. Axillary node status is the most important indicator for predicting how far the cancer has spread. If the lymph nodes are positive for cancer cells, the prognosis is poorer. The client's previous history of cancer puts her at an increased risk for breast cancer recurrence, especially if the cancer occurred in the other breast. It does not predict prognosis, however. The estrogen-progesterone assay test is used to identify present tumors being fed from an estrogen site within the body. Some breast cancers grow rapidly as long as there is an estrogen supply such as from the ovaries. The estrogen-progesterone assay test does not indicate the prognosis.
Question 3 of 5
One afternoon 3 weeks into his alcohol treatment program, a client says to the nurse, 'It's really not all my fault that I have a drinking problem. Alcoholism runs in my family. Both my grandfather and father were heavy drinkers.' The nurse's best response would be:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Focusing is an effective therapeutic strategy. This response, however, allows the client to 'defocus' off the topic of learning how to accept responsibility for his behavior and future growth. The nurse can educate the client about both the 'genetic risk' for the development of alcoholism and ways to make long-term healthy lifestyle changes. This response is inappropriately confrontational and condescending to the client. Reflection of content can be an effective verbal therapeutic technique. It is used inappropriately here.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of Sjögren’s syndrome. The nurse should expect the client to have:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sjögren’s syndrome is an autoimmune condition causing reduced salivary and lacrimal gland function, leading to dry eyes and mouth.
Question 5 of 5
A 43-year-old client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of peripheral vascular disorder. She arrives in her room via stretcher and requires assistance to move to her bed. The nurse notes that her left leg is cold to touch. She complains of having recently experienced muscle spasms in that leg. To determine if these muscle spasms are indicative of intermittent claudication, the nurse would begin her assessment with the following question:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Describing pain is an important aspect of the assessment; however, assessing activity preceding muscle spasms is equally important. Edema may occur with peripheral vascular disease, but it is not of particular importance in assessing intermittent claudication. Lesions may be present with peripheral vascular disease, but they are not an indication of intermittent claudication. With intermittent claudication, muscle spasms occur intermittently, mainly with walking and after exercising. Rest may relieve muscle spasms.