NCLEX-PN
Practice NCLEX PN Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 67 year-old client with non-insulin dependent diabetes should be instructed to contact the out-patient clinic immediately if the following findings are present
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An open, reddened wound on the heel. When signs of trauma and/or infection occur in their feet, elderly clients who have diabetes and/or vascular disease should seek health care quickly and continue treatment until the problem is resolved. Without treatment, serious infection, gangrene, limb loss, and death may result.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for an adult who is receiving diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine sulfate (Lomotil) qid. What nursing assessment is essential while the client is receiving this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lomotil can cause respiratory depression due to its opioid component, requiring respiratory assessment before administration.
Question 3 of 5
The drug of choice for managing status epilepticus is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam is the first-line treatment for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset in stopping seizures.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with spontaneous rupture of membranes. The nurse notes a loop of umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Umbilical cord prolapse is an emergency requiring the knee-chest position to relieve cord compression. Suprapubic pressure and McRoberts are for shoulder dystocia, and Leopold maneuvers are for fetal positioning assessment.
Question 5 of 5
The physician has prescribed Elavil(amitriptyline) for a client with depression. The nurse should continue to monitor the client's mood because the maximal effects of tricyclic antidepressant medication does not occur for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline take 2-4 weeks to reach maximal therapeutic effect.
Choices A and B are too short, and D is excessively long.