NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 3 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 53-year-old who has pernicious anemia is being seen in the physician's office. Because the client has pernicious anemia, which comment is of greatest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leg pain suggests worsening neuropathy, a serious complication of pernicious anemia, requiring urgent evaluation to prevent irreversible nerve damage.
Extract:
A client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization at 8 AM. The client's laboratory work was completed five days ago. The results were: K⺠3.0 mEq/L, Na⺠148 mEq/L, glucose 178 mg/dL. He complains of muscle weakness and cramps.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following nursing actions is BEST?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: All answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) Aldactone is potassium-sparing diuretic and is an oral medication, patient is NPO for procedure (2) is not feasible prior to the cardiac cath because the client is NPO (3) correct-signs and symptoms are indicative of hypokalemia; stat serum K⺠level is needed to confirm the K⺠level prior to going for cardiac catheterization (4) is unnecessary at this time
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
A young child with a history of grand mal seizures is in public school. He is on phenobarbital and hydantoin (Dilantin) to control the seizures. His teacher tells the nurse that he has not had any seizures but he does keep falling asleep in class. What should the nurse include when discussing his drowsiness with the teacher?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenobarbital, a barbiturate, commonly causes drowsiness, explaining the child's sleepiness in class, which should be monitored but is expected.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Positive rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point is a hallmark of appendicitis, indicating peritoneal irritation. Supine positioning may worsen pain, absent bowel sounds suggest obstruction, and a normal WBC count does not rule out appendicitis.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin is the standard anticoagulant for preventing thromboembolism in atrial fibrillation, reducing stroke risk. Aspirin and clopidogrel are antiplatelets, and heparin is used short-term or in acute settings.