NCLEX-RN
ATI NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 35-year-old primigravida comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. The midwife, on examining the client, suspects that she is approximately 11 weeks pregnant. The pregnancy is positively confirmed by finding:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. The coloration may not subside from past pregnancy or could be caused by other situations that create vasocongestion. FHR (movement) observed DISTINCT on ultrasound is a positive diagnosis of pregnancy. Enlargement of the uterus may be due to fibroids or infection. It is considered a probable sign. Breast tenderness and enlargement is a presumptive sign because it may be due to other conditions, such as premenstrual changes.
Question 2 of 5
As a postoperative cholecystectomy client completes tomorrow's dinner menu, the nurse knows that one of the following meal choices will best provide the essential vitamin(s) necessary for proper tissue healing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This meal choice provides more of the vitamins A, D, and K than of vitamin C. This meal choice provides more of the vitamins A, B12, and D than of vitamin C. This meal choice provides more of the vitamins A, B1 (thiamine), niacin, and microminerals than of vitamin C. This meal choice provides foods rich in vitamin C, which are essential in tissue healing.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse caring for a client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate must closely observe for side effects associated with drug therapy. An expected side effect of magnesium sulfate is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypersomnolence (drowsiness) is an expected side effect of magnesium sulfate used for preeclampsia due to its central nervous system depressant effects. Absence of reflexes or decreased respiratory rate would indicate toxicity not an expected effect.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with pancreatitis. Which of the following IV medications would the nurse expect the physician to prescribe for control of pain in this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Meperidine is the drug of choice for clients with pancreatitis. It will not cause spasms at the sphincter of Oddi, which can lead to increased pancreatic pain.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of endometriosis is admitted with complaints of pelvic pain. The nurse should expect the client to have:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Endometriosis causes pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea due to ectopic endometrial tissue responding to hormonal changes.