NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Free Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 34-year-old client who is gravida 1, para 0 has a history of infertility and conceived this pregnancy while taking fertility drugs. She is at 32 weeks' gestation and is carrying triplets. She is complaining of low back pain and a feeling of pelvic pressure. Her cervical exam reveals a long, closed cervix. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing mild uterine contractions every 7-8 minutes after the nurse has placed her on the fetal monitor. Her condition should indicate that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rhythmical contractions in conjunction with low back pain and pelvic pressure at 32 weeks in a woman carrying triplets are of great concern, indicating possible preterm labor, which is more common in multiple pregnancies.
Question 2 of 5
A 30-year-old male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder. For the last 2 months, his family describes him as being 'on the move,' sleeping 3-4 hours nightly, spending lots of money, and losing approximately 10 lb. During the initial assessment with the client, the nurse would expect him to exhibit which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients have short attention spans and may be abusive toward authority figures. Introspection requires focusing and concentration; clients with mania experience flight of ideas, which prevents concentration. Grandiosity and an inflated sense of self-worth are characteristic of this disorder. Feelings of helplessness and hopelessness are symptoms of the depressive stage of bipolar disorder.
Question 3 of 5
A 67-year-old man had a physical examination prior to beginning volunteer work at the hospital. A routine chest x-ray demonstrated left ventricular hypertrophy. His blood pressure was 180/110. He is 45 lb overweight. His diet is high in sodium and fat. He has a strong family history of hypertension. The client is placed on antihypertensive medication; a low-sodium, low-fat diet; and an exercise regimen. On his next visit, compliance would best be determined by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure within acceptable range best demonstrates compliance, but weight loss cannot be accomplished without adherence to medication, diet, and exercise. Absence of side effects does not indicate compliance with medication. Pill counts can be misleading because the client can alter pill counts prior to visit. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not an accurate measure of compliance because hypertrophy frequently does not decrease even with pharmacological management. Therapeutic blood levels measure the drug level at the time of the test. There is no indication of compliance several days before testing.
Question 4 of 5
A client tells the nurse that she plans to use the rhythm method of birth control. The nurse is aware that the success of the rhythm method depends on the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The rhythm method relies on predicting ovulation based on menstrual cycle patterns. Regular menses are essential for accurate prediction. Age intercourse frequency and temperature range are less critical to its success.
Question 5 of 5
An alcoholic client who is completing the inpatient segment of a substance abuse program was placed on disulfiram (Antabuse) drug therapy. What should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When alcohol is ingested with disulfiram therapy, the client experiences nausea, vomiting, and a potentially serious drop in blood pressure. Disulfiram is most successful when used early in the recovery process while the individual makes major lifestyle changes necessary for long-term recovery. Disulfiram works on the classical conditioning principle. The effects of disulfiram can be felt when alcohol is ingested 1-2 weeks after disulfiram is discontinued.