NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Practice Test RN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 28-year-old client comes to the clinic for her first prenatal examination. In relating her obstetrical history, she tells the nurse that she has been pregnant twice before. She had a 'miscarriage' with the first pregnancy after 6 weeks. With the second pregnancy, she delivered twin girls at 31 weeks' gestation. One of the twins was stillborn and the other twin died at 4 days of age. Using a five-digit system, the nurse records her as being:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first digit represents the total number of pregnancies. This client has been pregnant 3 times including this pregnancy. The twin pregnancy counts as only one pregnancy, and because she delivered prior to 37 weeks' gestation, the third digit is recorded as 1. The first digit represents the total number of pregnancies. This client has been pregnant 3 times including this pregnancy. The second digit represents the total number of full-term deliveries; she has lost two pregnancies before 37 weeks' gestation. At present, she has no living children, so the fifth digit is noted as 0. The client is pregnant for the third time, and the first digit reflects the total number of pregnancies. She has had no full-term deliveries, because she delivered prior to 37 gestational weeks, so the second digit is recorded as 0. The third digit represents the number of preterm deliveries, and a twin pregnancy counts as only one delivery. She lost an earlier pregnancy prior to 20 gestational weeks, and the fourth digit reflects spontaneous or elective abortions. Lastly, the fifth digit indicates the number of children currently living, and she has no living children. She is pregnant for the third time, and the first digit reflects the total number of pregnancies. In the previous two pregnancies, she delivered prior to 37 gestational weeks, thus having no full-term deliveries, which is indicated by the second digit. The fourth digit represents the total number of abortions, spontaneous or elective, and she reported a spontaneous abortion with her first pregnancy.
Question 2 of 5
A 48-year-old client is being seen in her physician's office for complaints of indigestion, heartburn, right upper quadrant pain, and nausea of 4 days' duration, especially after meals. The nurse realizes that these symptoms may be associated with cholecystitis and therefore would check for which specific sign during the abdominal assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This sign is a faint blue discoloration around the umbilicus found in clients who have hemorrhagic pancreatitis. This sign indicates areas of inflammation within the peritoneum, such as with appendicitis. It is a deep palpation technique used on a nontender area of the abdomen, and when the palpating hand is removed suddenly, the client experiences a sharp, stabbing pain at an area of peritoneal inflammation. This sign is considered positive with acute cholecystitis when the client is unable to take a deep breath while the right upper quadrant is being deeply palpated. The client will elicit a sudden, sharp gasp, which means the gallbladder is acutely inflamed. This is a sign of acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis and manifests as a green or purple discoloration in the flanks.
Question 3 of 5
A gravida 2 para 1 client is hospitalized with severe preeclampsia. While she receives magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) therapy, the nurse knows it is safe to repeat the dosage if:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Respirations >16 breaths/min indicate that toxic magnesium levels have not been reached, making it safe to repeat the dose.
Question 4 of 5
When a client is receiving vasoactive therapy IV, such as dopamine (Intropin), and extravasation occurs, the nurse should be prepared to administer which of the following medications directly into the site?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phentolamine is given to counteract the-adrenergic effects that cause ischemia and necrosis of local tissue. Epinephrine is an endogenous catecholamine that produces vasoconstriction and increases heart rate and contractility. Phenylephrine causes constriction of arterioles of skin, mucous membranes, and viscera, which in turn can cause ischemia and necrosis. Sodium bicarbonate is an alkalinizing agent that is incompatible with dopamine.
Question 5 of 5
A 5-year-old child was recently diagnosed as having acute lymphoid leukemia. She is hospitalized for additional tests and to begin a course of chemotherapy designed to induce a remission. She is scheduled to have a bone marrow aspiration tomorrow. She has had a bone marrow test previously and is apprehensive about having another. Which of the following interventions will be most effective in relieving her anxiety?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Providing a detailed explanation of the procedure helps reduce anxiety by preparing the child for what to expect, addressing her previous experience.