NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 15-year-old client took a full bottle of extra-strength acetaminophen in a suicide attempt 5 hours prior to admission to the emergency department for treatment, and the serum level of the drug is 180 mcg/mL. Which of the following interventions does the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose requires NAC (
A), supportive care (
B), charcoal if within 4-8 hours (
C), hepatic monitoring (
D), and psychiatric consultation (E) for suicide attempt.
Question 2 of 5
The client with diabetes is preparing for discharge. During discharge teaching, the nurse assesses the client's ability to care for himself. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for follow-up after discharge?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Visual impairment may hinder diabetes self-management, necessitating follow-up.
Question 3 of 5
A 43-year-old client has developed progressive frontotemporal dementia and is exhibiting inappropriate and compulsive behaviors, difficulty with language, and impaired judgment. Which statement by the client's wife suggests that she has not accepted a permanent role change in their relationship?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Expecting the husband to manage finances (
A) indicates denial of his impaired judgment due to dementia, suggesting non-acceptance of a permanent role change. Other statements (B, C,
D) reflect frustration or realistic expectations.
Question 4 of 5
A client returns from surgery with a total knee replacement. Which of the following findings requires immediate nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A CPM set at 90° flexion immediately post-knee replacement is excessive and could damage the surgical site, requiring immediate adjustment.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy for leukemia. The client’s latest laboratory results show a white blood cell count of 2,000/mm³. Which of the following nursing actions is the HIGHEST priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: a white blood cell count of 2,000/mm³ indicates neutropenia, and initiating neutropenic precautions is the priority to prevent infection