NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Nursing Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with Legg-Calvé Perthes disease. Which of the client's responses would indicate compliance during initial therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This condition causes aseptic necrosis of the head of the femur in the acetabulum. Drinking large quantities of milk at this time cannot hasten recovery. The aim of treatment is to keep the head of the femur in the acetabulum. Nonweight-bearing is essential. Activity causes microfractures of the epiphysis. In addition to nonweight-bearing, clients are often placed on bedrest, which helps to reduce inflammation. Later, active motion is encouraged. Weight is not generally an issue with this disease. Slipped femoral capital epiphysis, which is most frequently observed in obese pubescent children, usually requires a weight reduction diet.
Question 2 of 5
The mother of a client is apprehensive about taking home her 2 year old who was diagnosed with asthma after being admitted to the emergency room with difficulty breathing and cyanosis. She asks the nurse what symptoms she should look for so that this problem will not happen again. The nurse instructs her to watch for the following early symptoms:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The child with asthma may not have fever unless there is an underlying infection. Edema of the eyes will not be present because the child with asthma is more likely to have dehydration related to excessive water loss during the work of breathing. All of these symptoms indicate decreased oxygenation and are early symptoms of asthma. Coughing and wheezing are not early signs of difficulty.
Question 3 of 5
A client with cancer is experiencing a common side effect of chemotherapy administration. Which laboratory assessment finding would cause the most concern?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A sodium level of 50 mg/dL is impossible (likely a typo for 50 mEq/L, which is severely hyponatremic) and life-threatening, causing seizures. Glucose (
B), platelets (
C), and WBC (
D) are near normal or less critical.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse asks a patient about current medications. Which one of the patient's medications is most likely to cause abdominal pain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Erythromycin commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects, including abdominal pain, due to its motility-stimulating effects. Norco may cause constipation, Zyrtec is less likely to affect the GI tract, and Aldactone’s side effects are primarily electrolyte-related.
Question 5 of 5
An 83-year-old client has been hospitalized following a fall in his home. He has developed a possible fecal impaction. Which of the following assessment findings would be most indicative of a fecal impaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Liquid stool can pass around an impaction, making it a key indicator. The other findings are not specific to fecal impaction.