HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Your patient has been diagnosed with orchiditis. What information about this disorder should you inform the patient about?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Orchiditis can be symptomatically treated with ice to reduce inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because orchiditis is not typically caused by streptococcus. Choice C is incorrect as heat is not the recommended treatment for orchiditis. Choice D is also incorrect as surgery is not the first-line treatment for orchiditis.
Question 2 of 5
A clinical instructor teaches a class for the public about diabetes mellitus. Which individual does the nurse assess as being at highest risk for developing diabetes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight is at the highest risk for developing diabetes. Excess weight is a significant risk factor for diabetes as it can lead to insulin resistance and metabolic abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are also risk factors for diabetes, but being overweight has a stronger association with the development of the condition compared to lack of exercise, excessive alcohol consumption, or smoking.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following chronic complications is associated with diabetes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Diabetes is associated with chronic complications such as retinopathy, neuropathy, and coronary artery disease. Choice A includes symptoms rather than chronic complications of diabetes. Choice C lists conditions not typically associated with diabetes. Choice D describes symptoms that may occur in various medical conditions but are not specific chronic complications of diabetes.
Question 4 of 5
What is the most common cause of HHNS?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.
Question 5 of 5
Dr. Shrunk orders intravenous (IV) insulin for Rita, a client with a blood sugar of 563. Nurse AJ administers insulin lispro (Humalog) intravenously (IV). What does the best evaluation of the nurse reveal? Select one that does not apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best evaluation of the nurse reveals that she should have used regular insulin (Humulin R) for IV administration. Regular insulin is the only insulin approved for intravenous administration due to its pharmacokinetic properties. Insulin lispro (Humalog) is not suitable for IV use. Choice A is incorrect because giving insulin intravenously is necessary in this case of high blood sugar. Choice B is incorrect because administering a different insulin without consulting the physician is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse used the incorrect insulin, which could pose risks to the client's health.