HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Your patient has been diagnosed with giant cell arthritis. What medication will this patient most likely be given?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High doses of prednisone are commonly prescribed for giant cell arthritis to reduce inflammation. Aspirin is not typically used for this condition. Methotrexate is more commonly used for conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, not giant cell arthritis. Albuterol is a bronchodilator used for respiratory conditions, not for giant cell arthritis.
Question 2 of 5
Your patient has a blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L. What intervention should you anticipate for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kidney dialysis. A blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening. Kidney dialysis is the most appropriate intervention to rapidly lower potassium levels in this situation. Choice A, intravenous potassium supplementation, would worsen the hyperkalemia. Choice B, intravenous calcium supplementation, is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia. Choice D, parenteral nutrition, is unrelated to treating hyperkalemia and would not address the immediate concern.
Question 3 of 5
The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute, first convert the ordered amount to drops per minute. 20 cc per hour equals 20 drops per hour with 60 cc per drop tubing, which is equivalent to 20 drops per hour * 60 cc per drop = 1200 drops per hour. To find drops per minute, divide 1200 by 60 (minutes in an hour), which equals 20 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 drops per minute. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
Question 4 of 5
Select all of the risk factors that are associated with deep vein thrombosis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "The use of oral contraceptives." Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis include factors such as immobility, surgery, cancer, obesity, smoking, and the use of oral contraceptives. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood type and Rh factor do not play a role in the development of deep vein thrombosis, and being underweight is not typically considered a risk factor for this condition.
Question 5 of 5
During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.