While caring for the client during the first hour after delivery, the nurse determines that the uterus is boggy and there is vaginal bleeding. What should be the nurse's first action?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when encountering a boggy uterus and vaginal bleeding after delivery is to massage the fundus. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract, which can reduce vaginal bleeding. Checking vital signs may be important but addressing the uterine atony and bleeding takes precedence. Offering a bedpan or checking for perineal lacerations are not the immediate actions needed to manage postpartum hemorrhage.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mental confusion. In this scenario, the client's high fever and pneumonia diagnosis indicate an infection. Infections, especially in older adults, can lead to mental confusion due to the body's systemic response to the infection. Flushed skin (choice A) is more commonly associated with fever but does not specifically relate to the client's condition. Bradycardia (choice B) and hypotension (choice D) are less likely findings in a client with pneumonia and a high fever; instead, tachycardia and increased blood pressure are more commonly seen in response to infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing approach in the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in an infant is to remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision. This approach helps prevent injury to the surgical site while ensuring the infant's comfort and safety. Choice B is incorrect as initiating oral feedings immediately after surgery may not be appropriate and could compromise the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as introducing parents to the suture line cleansing protocol is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the infant on the back after feedings is not specific to the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insufficient oxygenation of the cardiac muscle. Myocardial infarction pain is primarily caused by inadequate oxygen reaching the heart muscle, leading to ischemia and tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because circulatory overload, left ventricular overload, and electrolyte imbalance are not the primary causes of chest pain in myocardial infarction. Circulatory overload may lead to other symptoms like edema, left ventricular overload can result in heart failure symptoms, and electrolyte imbalance may present with various manifestations, but none of these directly cause the characteristic chest pain associated with an MI.