HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the nurse observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document that the fistula is intact. The palpable buzzing sensation (known as a thrill) over the AV fistula indicates proper functioning. It is essential for the nurse to document this finding to ensure ongoing monitoring of the fistula's status. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication to loosen the dressing. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not associated with the palpable buzzing sensation of a thrill. Choice D is incorrect as applying pressure over the site is not necessary for this situation.
Question 2 of 5
While performing an inspection of a client's fingernails, the PN observes a suspected abnormality of the nail's shape and character. Which finding should the PN document?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clubbed nails. Clubbed nails are a significant finding often associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. The presence of clubbed nails should be documented for further evaluation. Splinter hemorrhages (Choice B) are tiny areas of bleeding under the nails and are associated with conditions like endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (Choice C) are common and often a normal finding in older adults. Koilonychia or spoon nails (Choice D) refer to nails that are concave or scooped out, often seen in conditions like iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. These conditions are not typically associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease, making them less likely findings in this situation.
Question 3 of 5
While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.
Question 4 of 5
What is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Fragile X syndrome because it is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, resulting from a mutation in the FMR1 gene. Down syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Turner syndrome are not the most common genetic causes of intellectual disability. Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, Prader-Willi syndrome results from specific genetic abnormalities on chromosome 15, and Turner syndrome is characterized by the absence of part or all of one of the X chromosomes.
Question 5 of 5
Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.
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