Questions 9

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI CAT Exam 2024 Questions

Question 1 of 5

While assessing a client four hours post-thoracentesis, the nurse is unable to auscultate breath sounds on the right side of the chest. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client's vital signs and respiratory effort. It is crucial to promptly detect any immediate complications or changes in the client's condition. Instructing cough and deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be considered after further assessment. Administering oxygen (choice C) should be based on assessment findings and healthcare provider's orders. While documenting the findings (choice D) is essential, it should not be the first action when a potential issue with breath sounds is detected.

Question 2 of 5

The mother of a teenager is told that her son has recently been found stealing from other students at school. The mother's response is, 'I cannot think about that today.' The nurse determines that this mother is using which defense mechanism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Suppression. Suppression involves a conscious effort to avoid dealing with distressing thoughts or feelings. In this case, the mother is consciously choosing not to think about her son's behavior. Choice B, Repression, involves unconsciously blocking out distressing thoughts or feelings. Choice C, Sublimation, is the channeling of unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable behaviors, which is not demonstrated in this scenario. Choice D, Undoing, is a defense mechanism where a person tries to undo or reverse a negative thought or action by performing a contrary behavior, which is not applicable here.

Question 3 of 5

After a client with leukemia undergoes a bone marrow biopsy and is found to have thrombocytopenia, which nursing assessment is most important following the procedure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the aspiration site. Thrombocytopenia, characterized by a low platelet count, increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, monitoring the biopsy site for bleeding or hematoma is crucial to ensure early detection and intervention. Assessing body temperature (choice B) is not directly related to the increased bleeding risk associated with thrombocytopenia. Monitoring skin elasticity (choice C) and measuring urinary output (choice D) are important assessments but are not the priority in this situation where bleeding risk needs immediate attention.

Question 4 of 5

A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti-CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti-CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.

Question 5 of 5

The healthcare provider changes a client's medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

Similar Questions

Join Our Community Today!

Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for HESI-LPN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your HESI-LPN exam.

Call to Action Image