Which of the following strategies can help reduce healthcare-associated infections?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: Implementing strict hygiene protocols can help reduce healthcare-associated infections. By maintaining high standards of hygiene, such as proper handwashing, sterilization of equipment, and cleanliness of the environment, the spread of infections can be minimized. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using outdated medical equipment can increase the risk of infections due to lack of proper maintenance and sterilization. Increasing patient wait times may lead to frustration but does not directly impact infection rates. Reducing nursing staff can compromise patient care and monitoring but is not specifically related to reducing healthcare-associated infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preventive care. Primary healthcare emphasizes preventive care, which includes promoting overall health, preventing diseases, and providing early intervention to avoid the progression of illnesses. Emergency care (choice A) is focused on immediate medical attention for urgent health situations but is not the primary focus of primary healthcare. Specialized treatment (choice C) refers to care provided by specialists for specific health conditions, which is not the main focus of primary healthcare. Hospital-based services (choice D) involve inpatient care provided in a hospital setting, which is not the primary focus of primary healthcare that aims to provide comprehensive and accessible care at the community level.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the Trendelenburg position. This position involves placing the patient with their legs elevated higher than their head. It is used to increase blood flow to the upper body, including the brain and heart, in cases of hypovolemic shock. This helps improve perfusion to vital organs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not facilitate the desired redistribution of blood flow needed in hypovolemic shock. The supine position is lying flat on the back, the left lateral position is lying on the left side, and the right lateral position is lying on the right side.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biofeedback. Biofeedback is a nonpharmacological technique that uses electronic monitoring equipment to provide real-time data on physiological processes such as heart rate, muscle tension, and skin temperature. Through this feedback, patients learn to control and regulate these bodily functions voluntarily. Choice A, Meditation, involves focusing the mind and reducing stress through techniques like mindfulness or deep breathing, but it does not specifically rely on electronic monitoring equipment. Choice B, Visualization, is a technique where individuals imagine peaceful scenes to promote relaxation and reduce anxiety, and it also does not involve electronic monitoring. Choice D, Chiropractic, is a healthcare profession that focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of musculoskeletal disorders through manual adjustments and manipulation, which is unrelated to the use of electronic monitoring equipment for controlling bodily functions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kidney dialysis. A blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening. Kidney dialysis is the most appropriate intervention to rapidly lower potassium levels in this situation. Choice A, intravenous potassium supplementation, would worsen the hyperkalemia. Choice B, intravenous calcium supplementation, is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia. Choice D, parenteral nutrition, is unrelated to treating hyperkalemia and would not address the immediate concern.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: High doses of prednisone are commonly prescribed for giant cell arthritis to reduce inflammation. Aspirin is not typically used for this condition. Methotrexate is more commonly used for conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, not giant cell arthritis. Albuterol is a bronchodilator used for respiratory conditions, not for giant cell arthritis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique for a client with dysphagia is to instruct them to place their chin toward their chest when swallowing. This action helps to close off the airway during swallowing, reducing the risk of aspiration. Elevating the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees during mealtime helps prevent aspiration, but this is not the responsibility of the AP. Withholding fluids until the end of the meal can lead to dehydration and is not a recommended practice. Providing a 10-minute rest period prior to meals is not specifically related to improving swallowing safety for clients with dysphagia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "The use of oral contraceptives." Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis include factors such as immobility, surgery, cancer, obesity, smoking, and the use of oral contraceptives. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood type and Rh factor do not play a role in the development of deep vein thrombosis, and being underweight is not typically considered a risk factor for this condition.