HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following statements is true of sickle-cell anemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sickle-cell anemia results from a mutation in the beta-globin gene, causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped. These misshapen cells can obstruct small blood vessels, leading to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications, hydration, and in severe cases, blood transfusions. It is caused by a specific mutation in the beta-globin gene, not by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Additionally, sickle-cell anemia is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent, not exclusive to any specific gender.
Question 2 of 5
A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the second stage of labor, the cervix is fully dilated, and the client delivers the newborn. The expulsion of the placenta occurs during the third stage of labor, not the second stage. Regular contractions typically begin in the first stage of labor, not the second. Gradual dilation of the cervix occurs during the first stage of labor, specifically during the active phase.
Question 3 of 5
A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.
Question 4 of 5
During which of the following periods does the development of arms and legs occur in a pregnancy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The development of arms and legs occurs during the critical period of the fourth to eighth weeks of pregnancy. This timeframe is crucial for the formation of limbs and other key body parts. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the development of the lungs, heart, and stomach respectively occurs at different stages of fetal development and is not primarily associated with the fourth to eighth weeks of pregnancy.
Question 5 of 5
Four clients at full term present to the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should a nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes requires immediate assessment as she may be in active labor or at risk of infection. The vaginal show and leaking membranes suggest potential rupture of membranes and the start of labor. Assessing her first ensures prompt management and monitoring. The other options, while important, do not indicate immediate or emergent needs. Contractions every three minutes in a multipara can be managed with ongoing monitoring; non-stress tests and biophysical profiles can be scheduled and are not acute needs. Burning on urination and urinary frequency in a primipara may indicate a urinary tract infection, which is important but not as urgent as assessing for active labor or rupture of membranes.
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