HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following methods of insulin administration would be used in the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion. In the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin is administered via IV bolus to quickly reduce blood glucose levels, followed by a continuous infusion to maintain control. Subcutaneous and intramuscular routes are not used in this situation as they are not rapid or predictable enough to address the acute hyperglycemia seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. IV bolus alone without the continuous infusion may not provide sustained control of blood glucose levels, making choice C incorrect.
Question 2 of 5
Which insulin has the most rapid onset of action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lispro insulin has the most rapid onset of action among the options provided. It is a rapid-acting insulin analog that is designed to control postprandial hyperglycemia effectively. Lente insulin (Choice A) and Ultralente insulin (Choice C) are intermediate-acting insulins, which have a slower onset of action compared to Lispro. Humulin N (Choice D) is a neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin, which is an intermediate-acting insulin, not rapid-acting like Lispro. Therefore, the correct choice is Lispro.
Question 3 of 5
Who is credited with the stages of cognitive development?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Piaget is indeed credited with the stages of cognitive development. Jean Piaget, a renowned psychologist, proposed a theory of cognitive development that outlines distinct stages through which children develop intellectually. Erikson, Freud, and Lister are not associated with the stages of cognitive development. Erikson is known for his psychosocial stages, Freud for psychosexual stages, and Lister for contributions to the field of medicine.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following joints normally allows 360-degree circumflexion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The shoulder. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of motion, including 360-degree circumflexion. This joint provides flexibility and mobility in various directions. Choice A, the knee joint, primarily allows flexion and extension but does not have a 360-degree circumflexion. Choice C, the elbow joint, is a hinge joint that permits flexion and extension but not circumflexion. Choice D, the fingertips, do not form a specific joint that allows circumflexion; rather, they have joints that enable bending and straightening movements.
Question 5 of 5
Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.